JOHN CHAPTER ONE

INTRODUCTION

A surprising number of the great doctrines of the Bible including the doctrine of the Trinity can be clearly examined in the first 18 verses of the Gospel of John. This section of Scripture called the "Prologue of the Gospel According to John" brings home with great clarity the diety of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, Who is presented by author John as the Second Person of the Triune Godhead:

I) [Jn 1:1-3]:

(Jn 1:1 YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(Jn 1:2 YLT) He [lit., This One] was in [the] beginning with God;

(Jn 1:3 NAS) All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being."

A) (Jn 1:1-3) "IN [THE] BEGINNING" REFERS TO THE BEGINNING OF ALL TIME AND ALL CREATION WHEN ALL THINGS CAME INTO BEING

(Jn 1:1 YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Jn 1:2 YLT) He [lit., This One] was in [the] beginning with God; (Jn 1:3 NAS) All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being." =

"In [the] beginning" =

"en .........archE"

Since the phrase "en archE," lit., "in beginning" does not have the definite article in the original text and since it is placed first in the gospel of John for emphasis, and in the absence of the indefinite pronoun "tis" rendered "a certain one";

and since original creation of time and matter is in view in verse 3 as the substance of this beginning;

then the phrase "in [the] beginning" refers to the beginning of time and the creation of. all things."

Since there is the absence of the article or the indefinite pronoun ('a certain one,' Greek 'tis') to accompany the Greek word "archE" rendered beginning; then the first phrase in Jn 1:1a cannot be translated as indefinite, i.e., "In a beginning;" (nor can Jn 1:1c be translated "and the Word was a god"). For the context in Jn 1:1a demands a certain beginning with emphasis since the words "En archE" appear first. Note that if the article is not present, an object may or may not be regarded as definite, depending upon the context. Frequently, a noun without a definite article (i.e., anarthrous) is emphasizing character or quality, but not in the context of Jn 1:1a: Since the context demands a particular beginning, as corroborated by the fact that all translations include the definite article; then the omission simply makes the beginning in view an emphatic one pointing to the great beginning of Creation which is confirmed in verse 3 - causing all English translations to include "the" in the phrase!

B) (Jn 1:1a) "IN [THE] BEGINNING" CANNOT REFER TO THE TIME OF THE WORD BEING CREATED, AS SOME MAINTAIN, BECAUSE THE PHRASE "IN [THE] BEGINNING WAS THE WORD" STATES THAT THE WORD ALREADY "WAS" IN [THE] BEGINNING, I.E., HE IS ETERNAL, UNCREATED, PREEXISTENT AND GOD

(Jn 1:1a YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word" =

If creation of the Word is being conveyed in the phrase "in [the] beginning," i.e., if the time when the creation of the Word began is being conveyed as some maintain in Jn 1:1a, then the Greek verb ginomai = to come into existence, to be created, exist by creation needs to be present in the aorist tense form, "egeneto," which means 'came into being', (cf. Jn 1:3 ). But such is not the case. The Greek verb form "en" rendered "was" in the YLT of Jn 1:1a is in the imperfect tense conveying indefinite and linear action. Since the Word is stipulated as already "was" at the time declared as "in [the] beginning" of time and creation, then "en" portrays the continual existence of the Word before the beginning of time and creation. Hence an uncreated, preexistent, eternal existence of "the Word" is in view. So the phrase "In [the] beginning in Jn 1:1a cannot be referring to the time when the Word was created because He is uncreated, preexistent and eternal. This establishes Him as God, Who exclusively is eternal, uncreated, preexistent and Who continually existed before time and matter was created. This is corroborated in Jn 1:1b-3:

1) [Compare Jn 1:1-3]:

(Jn 1:1 YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(Jn 1:2 YLT) He [lit., This One] was in [the] beginning with God:

(Jn 1:3 NAS) All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being."

Notice that the Word is declared once more in verse 2 as being "with God in [the] beginning." He is then referred to in verse 3 as "Him" through Whom "all things were made," without Whom "nothing was made that has been made." It is emphatically declared here that all that was created was created through the Word following the declaration that the Word was with God "in [the] beginning." This narrows down the beginning to the beginning of time and creation when time and all things that were created were created. This rules out the Word being created, because He is Creator of all things. He couldn't have created Himself! The Word, therefore must be one Who is uncreated, preexistent, eternal and God.

C) (Jn 1:1a) THE GREEK "HO LOGOS" RENDERED "THE WORD" PORTRAYS A PERSON

(Jn 1:1 YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Jn 1:2 YLT) He [lit., This One] was in [the] beginning with God" =

In the ancient koine Greek language, "Ho Logos" rendered "the Word" may refer to a person Who could be seen and touched as well as heard as is portrayed in Jn 1:11, 14-18, 26-34. Hence the Greek word "Logos" in the context of Jn 1:1-2 appears with a definite article and is personified as such to mean a Person Who was already present at the beginning of time and creation hence uncreated, preexistent eternal and equal with God. As chapter one progresses, the verses continue to corroborate that author John is using the Greek words rendered "the Word" as well as "God," "the Life (temporal and eternal)" and "the Light" to portray a Person

****** EXCERPT FROM PHILIPPEANS CHAPTER TWO ******

(Phil 2:5-6a) THE GREEK PHRASE "HOS EN MORPHE THEOU HUPARCHON" RENDERED "WHO BEING / EXISTED / SUBSISTED IN THE FORM OF GOD" REFERS TO THE CONTINUAL EXISTENCE OF CHRIST JESUS AS GOD - ALMIGHTY, ETERNAL, IMMUTABLE AND HOLY - AN ETERNAL EXISTENCE THAT CANNOT CEASE OR DIE FOR THE SINS OF MANKIND, AS SOME CONTEND, OR CHANGE IN ANY WAY SINCE GOD IS IMMUTABLE

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

(Phil 2:6 NASB) "Who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

(Phil 2:6 Greek) "hos ....en .........morphE ....Theou .huparchOn

............................"Who ..in ..........form ..........of God subsisted

ouch harpagmon hEgEsato ...to

not ...robbery ......esteemed it.the

einai isa ....TheO

to be equal with God

The word rendered "Who" in Phil 2:6 above refers to Christ Jesus, (v. 5). The name Christ Jesus in Phil 2:5 stresses the title "Christ"- referring to the Son of God Who is God, Almighty, Eternal, Holy - and Immutable, (cf. Jn 1:1-3; Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6). And it was Christ Jesus Who freely, voluntarily and graciously emptied Himself in the sense of voluntarily setting aside / deferring His expression as God through the Humanity He added to Himself in the form and expression of Perfect Humanity, (Phil 2:7; cf. Jn 1:14). So He exclusively expressed His Humanity during His Humanity's ministry on earth from the conception / birth of His Humanity, (Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35), until His Humanity's death on the cross, (Phil 2:8) - with the exception of His transfiguration, (Mt 17:2-9). The Perfect Humanity of Christ is referred to by the name "Jesus," (Jn 1:25-34). And when the Christ, the Son of God, took upon Himself the form and expression of Perfect Humanity, He did it in order to pay the penalty for the sins of the whole world, (Phil 2:8; cf. 1 Jn 2:1-2). Only the form and expression of Christ Jesus' Humanity could have participated in His sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. For God's Holiness cannot be tainted with the guilt of humanity, (Refs. Ex 15:11; Lev 11:44; 19:2; Ps 18:30; 92:15; 22:3; Lk 18:19; 1 Jn 1:5); nor can Christ Jesus' Essence as God die or change in any way, because God is immutable, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6).

[Compare 1 Jn 1:5]:

(1 Jn 1:5 NKJV) "This is the message which we have heard from Him and declare to you, that God is light and in Him is no darkness [no sin] at all."

The Greek word "huparchon" in Phil 2:6 above is rendered "being," (NKJV, KJV), "existed," (NASB), "subsisted" (CBL Interlinear). It is a present participle of the verb "huparcho" which denotes to be / to be in existence / to subsist. The participle form "huparchon" in Phil 2:6 designates an ongoing existence as God, especially because of the words rendered "equal /equality with God." This existence of God was ongoing previous to adding to Himself Humanity, and continuing as both God and Man afterwards forever - with no separation, even at His Humanity's death on the cross, (Isa 9:6-7). So the Greek phrase "hos en morphE theou huparchon" rendered "who being [or who existed / subsisted] in the form of God" refers to the continual existence of Christ Jesus as God - Almighty, Eternal, Immutable and Holy - an eternal existence that cannot cease or die for the sins of mankind or change in any way, as some contend, since God is immutable, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6).

(Phil 2:6) THE GREEK WORD "MORPHE" RENDERED "FORM" IN PHIL 2:6 IN THE PHRASE "HOS EN MORPHE THEOU HUPARCHON" RENDERED "WHO BEING / EXISTED / SUBSISTED IN THE FORM OF GOD" REFERS TO THE EXTERNAL FORM / APPEARANCE BY WHICH A PERSON OR THING STRIKES THE VISION - AN EXTERNAL FORM BUT WHICH IS INTRINSICALLY INDICATIVE OF THE INNER NATURE FROM WHICH IT SPRINGS - A CONTINUAL / ETERNAL EXISTENCE OF CHRIST JESUS AS GOD - ALMIGHTY, ETERNAL. IMMUTABLE AND HOLY, ESPECIALLY BECAUSE OF THE WORDS RENDERED "EQUAL / EQUALITY WITH GOD" IN VERSE 6. (NOTE THAT CHRIST JESUS' ADDITION TO HIMSELF OF PERFECT HUMANITY WHICH WILL CONTINUE FOREVER IS IN VIEW IN THE NEXT TWO VERSES)

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

(Phil 2:6 Greek) "hos ....en .........morphE ....Theou .huparchOn

............................"Who ..in ..........form ..........of God subsisted

ouch harpagmon hEgEsato ...to

not ...robbery ......esteemed it.the

einai isa ....TheO

to be equal with God

The Greek word "morphE" rendered "form" in Phil 2:6 in the Greek phrase "hos en morphE Theou huparchOn" rendered "Who being / existed / subsisted in the form of God" has no definite article. Since the word does not have the definite article, it therefore is stressing the essence / the quality of God which is in Christ Jesus. (Note that His addition to Himself of Perfect Humanity which will continue forever from its inception is in view in the next two verses, ref. Phil 2:7-8). Although the word "form" in English can refer to the internal and/or the external - even convey a superficial shell of a form of something, it cannot be restricted in Phil 2:6 to a superficial outer shell that can be discarded or a form of a god, as some contend. For the Greek word "morphE" in Phil 2:6 & 7 has a greater sense than that because of the words "equal / equality with God" in verse 6. So the internal and external quality of the nature of Christ Jesus as wholly equal to God is in view - Almighty, Eternal, Immutable and Holy God, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6).

Since the Greek word, "morphE" in Phil 2:6 indicates the internal and external nature - the Essence of Almighty, Eternal, Immutable, Holy God subsisting in Christ Jesus from eternity, then nothing in this passage teaches that Christ Jesus emptied Himself of either His divine nature or His divine attributes. Therefore the phrase "emptied Himself" in Phil 2:6 indicates that He emptied Himself in the sense of voluntarily setting aside / deferring His expression as God through the Humanity He added to Himself in the form and expression of Perfect Humanity, (Phil 2:7; cf. Jn 1:14). So He exclusively expressed His Humanity during His Humanity's ministry on earth from the conception / birth of His Humanity, (Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35), until His Humanity's death on the cross, (Phil 2:8) - with the exception of His transfiguration, (Mt 17:2-9). The Perfect Humanity of Christ is referred to by the name "Jesus," (Jn 1:25-34). And when the Christ, the Son of God, took upon Himself the form and expression of Perfect Humanity, He did it in order to pay the penalty for the sins of the whole world, (Phil 2:8; cf. 1 Jn 2:1-2). Only the form and expression of Christ Jesus' Humanity could have participated in His sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. For God's Holiness cannot be tainted with the guilt of humanity, (Refs. Ex 15:11; Lev 11:44; 19:2; Ps 18:30; 92:15; 22:3; Lk 18:19; 1 Jn 1:5); nor can Christ Jesus' Essence as God die or change in any way, because God is immutable, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6).

And when His Humanity died, His Human spirit and soul left His dead physical Human body - remaining with God until His Humanity was resurrected in a glorified body. At all times His divine attributes could have been exercised freely according to His will. Although there were preincarnate appearances of the Son of God in the past, (refs Gen 22:15-18; 31:11-13; Ex 1:25-28; 3:4; 16:9), there is nothing 'accidental' or separable, such as particular modes of manifestation which may have at one time been part of Christ Jesus' Eternal, Almighty, Immutable Essence as God and His existance as Perfect Humanity born of the Holy Spirit in woman, and then at another time separated from it, as some contend.

So in Phil 2:7, the phrase rendered, "[Christ Jesus] taking the form ["morphE"] of a bondservant," must have the same meaning of "morphE" in the expression "being [existed / subsisted] in the form ["morphE"] of God" in Phil 2:6 of a continual, eternal and inseparable existence. For the two phrases are directly antithetical, i.e., intended to be a parallel contrast to one another. So "[Christ Jesus] taking the form ["morphE"] of a bondservant" in Phil 2:7 indicates that His Humanity will persist forever from it's inception - the conception / birth of His Humanity, (Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35) until His Humanity's death on the cross, (Phil 2:8) - and even continue forever through His resurrection on into eternity - with no separation from His Diety, (Isa 9:6-7). When Christ Jesus took on the form of a bond servent - made in the likeness of men, He did not separate Himself from His Eternal form as God, but added to Himself the Perfect form of Humanity. Hence from that time on He subsists as both God and Man forever!

[Compare Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35]:

(Mt 1:18 NASB) "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit."

(Lk 1:30 NASB) "The angel said to her, 'Do not be afraid, Mary; for you have found favor with God.

(Lk 1:31 NASB) And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall name Him Jesus.

(Lk 1:32 NASB) He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David;

(Lk 1:33 NASB) and He will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and His kingdom will have no end.'

(Lk 1:34 NASB) Mary said to the angel, 'How can this be, since I am a virgin?'

(Lk 1:35 NASB) The angel answered and said to her, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.' "

So the Holy Spirit caused a woman to be with child to give birth to a Human Son she named Jesus Who is the Son of God, the Christ - implying a permanent existence of the Christ / the Son of God and Jesus together forever - the GodMan - never to come apart, as some contend!

(Phil 2:6-8) CHRIST JESUS BEING / EXISTED / SUBSISTED IN [THE] FORM OF GOD - ALMIGHTY, ETERNAL IMMUTABLE AND HOLY DID NOT CONSIDER IT ROBBERY TO BE EQUAL WITH GOD IN THE SENSE OF REGARDING IT AS A THING TO BE GRASPED / HELD ONTO. HE WILLINGLY EMPTIED HIMSELF OF THE OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF HIS DIETY MAKING HIMSELF OF NO REPUTATION BY TAKING THE FORM OF A BONDSERVANT, I.E., BY COMING IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN, IN THE SENSE OF VOLUNTARILY SETTING ASIDE / DEFERRING HIS EXPRESSION AS GOD THROUGH THE HUMANITY HE ADDED TO HIMSELF IN THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF PERFECT HUMANITY. SO HE EXCLUSIVELY EXPRESSED HIS HUMANITY DURING HIS HUMANITY'S MINISTRY ON EARTH FROM THE CONCEPTION / BIRTH OF HIS HUMANITY, UNTIL HIS HUMANITY'S DEATH ON THE CROSS - WITH THE EXCEPTION OF HIS TRANSFIGURATION. THE PERFECT HUMANITY OF CHRIST IS REFERRED TO BY THE NAME "JESUS." AND WHEN THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD, TOOK UPON HIMSELF THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF PERFECT HUMANITY, HE DID IT IN ORDER TO PAY THE PENALTY FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD. ONLY THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF CHRIST JESUS' HUMANITY COULD HAVE PARTICIPATED IN HIS SACRIFICE FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD. FOR GOD'S HOLINESS CANNOT BE TAINTED WITH THE GUILT OF HUMANITY; NOR CAN CHRIST JESUS' ESSENCE AS GOD DIE OR CHANGE IN ANY WAY, BECAUSE GOD IS IMMUTABLE.

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

(Phil 2:6 Greek) "hos ....en .........morphE ....Theou .huparchOn

............................"Who ..in ..........form ..........of God subsisted

ouch harpagmon hEgEsato ...to

not ...robbery ......esteemed it.the

einai isa ....TheO

to be equal with God

The Greek word "harpagmon" rendered "robbery" in the context of Phil 2:6 NKJV and KJV refers to a treasure which Christ Jesus did not think it robbery to hold onto. It is in a noun form which can have one of two basic meanings within the context of Phil 2:6:

An active meaning = Christ Jesus did not think it robbery in the sense of His taking something that doesn't belong to Him - taking possession of His being equal with God,

and

a passive meaning = Christ Jesus did not think it robbery in the sense of His having what He rightfully possesses but which is robbed from him - His equality with God, being God Himself.

So in Phil 2:6, the phrase underlined and italicized and rendered in the NKJV & KJV, "Who, being / existed / subsisted in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God," indicates that in eternity past Christ Jesus always subsisted / existed as equal to God, hence He is God. So He could not be in an active position of robbing something He already possessed as an immutable, eternal possession - that of being God. His Essence as God cannot be taken away, because God is immutable and cannot lose His essence in any way, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6). Rather, the passive meaning of "harpagmon" must apply: that of Christ Jesus not thinking it robbery of having the expression of His Diety taken away - compare Phil 2:6 NASB: "Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped," i.e., held on to in the sense of deferring it freely, voluntarily and graciously Himself in order to exclusively express His Humanity during His Humanity's ministry on earth until His Humanity's death on the cross for the sins of all mankind, (1 Jn 2:2). Thereafter, His Humanity will continue for the rest of eternity as an inseparable part of the essence of God, (Isa 9:6-7).

(Phil 2:7-8a) PHIL 2:7b STATES THAT CHRIST JESUS TOOK ON THE EXTERNAL / INTERNAL FORM OF A BONDSERVANT - HUMANITY; PHIL 2:7c STATES THAT HE CAME IN THE LIKENESS [THE EXTERNAL] FORM OF MEN = GREEK "HOMOIOMATI" OF A BONDSERVANT [I.E., HUMANITY], AND PHIL 2:8a STATES CHRIST JESUS WAS FOUND IN THE APPEARANCE - THE OUTWARD FORM (GREEK = SCHEMATI") - OF MAN. SINCE CHRIST JESUS IS GOD, AND SINCE HIS INTERNAL NATURE IN HIS HUMANITY CANNOT BE LIKE THAT OF SINFUL MAN, THEN HIS HUMANITY MUST BE PERFECT, WITHOUT A SIN NATURE. SO ALTHOUGH HE CAME IN THE LIKENESS, I.E., WAS FOUND IN THE OUTWARD APPEARANCE OF A MAN, HE COULD NOT TAKE UPON HIMSELF THE INTERNAL CONTAMINATED FORM OF MAN, BUT THE INTERNAL FORM OF A PERFECT MAN

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

(Phil 2:7 NASB) "but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men."

"and being made in the likeness of men" =

"being made" ="genomenos" = [Lit.] "having become"

"in [the] likeness of men" = "en homoiOmati anthropon" = the external form of man

(Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

"And being found in appearance as [a] man. =

"kai .schemati euretheis ................os ..........anthropos.."

"and in figure having been found as [of a] man "

"schemati" = dative, singular, neuter, nominative of "schema" meaning fashion, form, external show = the outward form of man

Phil 2:8a states that Christ Jesus took on the outward form (= "schemati") of man - the external appearance. It says the same thing in Phil 2:7c with the word "homoiOmati" = external form, shape, figure: He came / was made in the outward appearance, the outward form of man, but without a sin nature. He did not have the internal contaminated form of man. Internally His Humanity was Perfect, (ref. 2 Cor 5:21; Ro 3:24-26; Heb 1:1-3; 4:15; 7:24-26), having been conceived by the Holy Spirit, (ref. Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35).

****** EXCERPT FROM JOHN CHAPTER ONE ******

(Jn 1:14) THE WORD - ETERNAL, CREATOR, THE LIFE, THE LIGHT OF MEN - GOD ADDED TO HIS ESSENCE PERFECT HUMANITY AND DWELT AMONG MEN SO THAT ALL MEN THROUGHOUT HISTORY, INCLUDING THE FUTURE THROUGH WITNESS ACCOUNTS BEGINNING WITH JOHN THE BAPTIST MIGHT HAVE THE OPPORTUNITY TO RECOGNIZE, KNOW AND BELIEVE IN HIM UNTO AN ETERNAL LIFE RELATIONSHIP WITH GOD

(Jn 1:1 YLT) "In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Jn 1:2 YLT) He [lit., This One] was in [the] beginning with God; (Jn 1:3 NAS) All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. (Jn 1:4 NAS) In Him was life, and the Life was the Light of men. (Jn 1:5 NKJV) And the Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it. (Jn 1:6 YLT) There came [into being, (cf. NASB)] a man - having been sent from God - whose name is John. (Jn 1:7 NKJV) This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through Him [the Light of men, the Life, the Word, (Jn 1:1-4)] might believe, (Jn 1:8 YLT) that one was not the Light, but - that he might testify about the Light. (Jn 1:9 NIV) The true Light that gives light to every man was coming into the world; (Jn 1:10 YLT) in the world He was, and the world through Him was made, and the world did not know Him: (Jn 1:11 NKJV) He came to His own [neuter, plural, i.e., He came to all things of His own, being Creator = all things of the world, both inanimate and animate, including mankind], and His own [mascline, plural = those animate objects who have the capacity to receive (i.e., believe in) Him, i.e., His own particular people, specifically the people of Israel] did not receive Him. (Jn 1:12 YLT) But as many [individuals of His own creation, (Jn 1:11a)] as did receive Him to them He gave authority to become sons [lit., children] of God - to those believing in His name: (Jn 1:13 YLT) who - not of blood nor of a will of flesh, nor of a will of man but - of God were begotten [born]. (Jn 1:14 NKJV) And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the [One and only from] the Father, full of grace and truth." =

(Jn 1:14 Greek) "Kai .hO Logos sarx .egeneto kai .eskenOsen ..en .........hEmin

............................"And the Word flesh became and tabernacled among .us

"sarx" = flesh, human, mortal nature, physical life.

kai .etheasametha tEn doxan autou doxan .hOs monogenous ........para .patros"

and we beheld ......the .glory ..His ....glory ..as ....of a one and only with. Father"

"para" = beside, by, with, at, from

pleres charitos .kai .alEtheias."

full ....of grace .and truth."

[The Greek verb rendered "became"] "egeneto" is the aorist tense form of the Greek infinitive verb, ginomai, which means, in the context of Jn 1:14, to come into being, or to become. So it is best rendered "[The Word] became [flesh]"... Note that the Greek word "sarx" which literally means "flesh," is not referring to "sinful flesh in the Greek phrase "kao hO Logos sarx egeneto" rendered "and the Word became flesh" in the NKJV. It refers to perfect sinless Humanity, (as was originally created by the Word, {Jn 1:3}), becoming an essence of the Word because of Who He is: perfect, sinless, eternal, Creator, God, the Life, the Light of men. This implies that the Word, did not previously have a permanent essence of Humanity. Furthermore, the absence of the definite article with "sarx" stresses the quality of Humanity to be added to the Word as opposed to being changed/transformed from Creator, eternal God to finite, created man. So the Word becoming flesh is not the same as a caterpillar becoming, i.e., being transformed into a butterfly where it no longer is a caterpillar. Since God is eternal, and the Word is God, then the Word cannot cease to exist as God. So the verb form "egeneto" conveys the concept that the Word became flesh in the sense of newly adding the quality of Humanity to Himself. For example, just as an individual can become a police officer as an additional expression of his being without losing being a civilian wherein sometimes he expresses himself as a civilian (off duty) and at other times as an officer of the Law (on duty); so the Word became flesh (Human), as an additional expression of His being without losing being eternal, uncreated, preexistent God wherein at times He chooses to express Himself in His finite Humanity and at other times as eternal, uncreated, preexistent God.

****** END OF EXCERPT FROM JOHN CHAPTER ONE ******

****** EXCERPT FROM PHILIPPEANS CHAPTER TWO, (CONT.) ******

(Phil 2:7-8) CHRIST JESUS WILLINGLY EMPTIED HIMSELF OF THE EXPRESSION OF HIS DIETY MAKING HIMSELF OF NO REPUTATION BY TAKING THE FORM OF A BONDSERVANT, I.E., BY COMING IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN, IN THE SENSE OF VOLUNTARILY SETTING ASIDE / DEFERRING HIS EXPRESSION AS GOD THROUGH THE HUMANITY HE ADDED TO HIMSELF IN THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF PERFECT HUMANITY. SO HE EXCLUSIVELY EXPRESSED HIS HUMANITY DURING HIS HUMANITY'S MINISTRY ON EARTH FROM THE CONCEPTION / BIRTH OF HIS HUMANITY, UNTIL HIS HUMANITY'S DEATH ON THE CROSS - WITH THE EXCEPTION OF HIS TRANSFIGURATION. THE PERFECT HUMANITY OF CHRIST IS REFERRED TO BY THE NAME "JESUS." AND WHEN THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD, TOOK UPON HIMSELF THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF PERFECT HUMANITY, HE DID IT IN ORDER TO PAY THE PENALTY FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD. ONLY THE FORM AND EXPRESSION OF CHRIST JESUS' HUMANITY COULD HAVE PARTICIPATED IN HIS SACRIFICE FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD. FOR GOD'S HOLINESS CANNOT BE TAINTED WITH THE GUILT OF HUMANITY; NOR CAN CHRIST JESUS' ESSENCE AS GOD DIE OR CHANGE IN ANY WAY, BECAUSE GOD IS IMMUTABLE.

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

The phrase rendered "but emptied Himself" in Phil 2:7 indicates that Christ Jesus emptied Himself - made Himself of no reputation - taking on "the form of a bondservant and being made in the likeness of men." Whereupon Phil 2:8 gives further answer to the question of what Christ Jesus emptied Himself into and why:

(Phil 2:8 NKJV) "And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross."

Since the part of Christ Jesus' Essence which is equal to God, (ref. Phil 2:6; Jn 1:1) is immutable - He cannot change, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6); then He could not have emptied Himself of His Divine Attributes - His Divine Essence. But He did empty Himself in the sense of voluntarily setting aside / deferring His expression as God through the Perfect Humanity He added to Himself, (Phil 2:7; cf. Jn 1:14). So He exclusively expressed His Humanity throughout His Humanity's ministry on earth from the conception / birth of His Humanity, (Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35), until His Humanity's death on the cross, (Phil 2:8) - with the exception of His transfiguration, (Mt 17:2-9). The Perfect Humanity of Christ is referred to by the name "Jesus," (Jn 1:25-34). And when the Christ, the Son of God, took upon Himself Perfect Humanity, He did it in order to pay the penalty for the sins of the whole world operating exclusively through that Humanity, (Phil 2:8; cf. 1 Jn 2:1-2).

Even when Christ Jesus in His Humanity performed miracles, He did them via the power of the indwelling Holy Spirit within His Human spirit, and not through the power of His Diety, (Isa 61:1-2; Lk 4:1, 14-19; Acts 10:38-39; Jn 3:34; 1 Pet 3:18). The indwelling Holy Spirit was received from above by Christ Jesus as visualized as a dove when He was baptized by John the Baptist, (refs. Mt 3:16; Mk 1:9; Lk 3:21; Jn 1:32).

Although God appeared in preincarnate appearances as the Angel of the LORD - Gen 16:7-16; 18:1-33; Judges 6:11-40; 13:3-25; Zech 3:1-2; 2 Kgs 19:35; Joshua 5:14; Christ Jesus' appearance in His Humanity as Jesus of Nazareth began from the conception / birth of His Humanity to be continued as part of His essence even unto His Humanity's death and resurrection into a glorified Human body. And His Humanity will continue, forever part of the Christ, the Son of God - both God and Man:

[Compare Isa 9:6-7]:

(Isa 9:6 NASB) "For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; And the government will rest on His shoulders; And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.

(Isa 9:7 NASB) There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace, On the throne of David and over his kingdom, To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness From then on and forevermore. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will accomplish this."

Just as it is plausible to state that a human ruler might empty himself of his ruling power in the sense of deferring the exercise of his ruling power to humble himself in order to take on the form, likeness, appearance and expression - a disguise as a servant - a common man, making himself of no reputation, in order to accomplish one thing or another such as what Israel's king Saul did in order to find out what the Philistines were about to do, (ref. 1 Sam 8:1-25); and Josiah's disguising himself in order to conduct war, (2 Chr 35:20-27); so all the more it is plausible with Christ Jesus to empty Himself of the expression of His Diety to exclusively express Himself in His Humanity in order to endure the punishment for the sins of the whole world to propitiate humanity and give man an opportunity to be saved by grace through a moment of faith alone in His propitiation alone.

Only the form and expression of Christ Jesus' Humanity could have participated in His sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. For God's Holiness cannot be tainted with the guilt of humanity, (Refs. Ex 15:11; Lev 11:44; 19:2; Ps 18:30; 92:15; 22:3; Lk 18:19; 1 Jn 1:5); nor can Christ Jesus' Essence as God die or change in any way, because God is immutable, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6).

Christ Jesus' Diety remained and will always remain Diety - immutable, without change, (Ps 102:25-27; Mal 3:6). For God not only created the universe, He sustains it by the very power of His being. If God were to die, the universe would pass out of existence, because nothing can exist apart from the sustaining power of God. Hence God could not have perished on the cross:

[Compare Col 1:15-17]:

(Col 1:15 NASB) "He [Jesus Christ, the Son of God, vv. 13-14] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

(Col 1:16 NASB) For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities - all things have been created through Him and for Him.

(Col 1:17 NASB) He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together."

(Phil 2:8) JESUS CHRIST IN HIS HUMANITY ON THE CROSS WAS FORSAKEN BY GOD AND PAID FOR THE SINS OF ALL MANKIND. SINCE CHRIST JESUS IS GOD AND MAN, AND SINCE HIS DIETY IS IMMUTABLE AND CANNOT DIE, THEN ONLY HIS HUMANITY DIED ON THE CROSS - CORROBORATING THAT HE EXCLUSIVELY EXPRESSED HIS HUMANITY DURING HIS HUMANITY'S MINISTRY ON EARTH FROM THE CONCEPTION / BIRTH OF HIS HUMANITY THROUGHOUT HIS HUMANITY'S DEATH ON THE CROSS - WITH THE EXCEPTION OF HIS TRANSFIGURATION. THEN CHRIST JESUS' HUMAN BODY WAS RESURRECTED FROM THE DEAD TOGETHER WITH HIS HUMAN SOUL AND HUMAN SPIRIT INTO A GLORIFIED BODY BY GOD - FOREVER AN ESSENCE OF THE SON OF GOD

(Phil 2:5 NKJV) "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, (Phil 2:6 NKJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:6 NASB) Who, although He existed [subsisted] in [the] form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, (Phil 2:6 KJV) Who, being in [the] form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God, (Phil 2:7 NKJV) but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, [and] coming in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:7 NASB) but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men. (Phil 2:8 NKJV) And being found in appearance as [a] man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to [the point of] death, even the death of the cross." =

Christ Jesus in His Humanity was forsaken by God in the sense of having a broken spiritual connection with God - in His Humanity for three hours before His Humanity died on the cross. When He was forsaken - it was His mentality: His Soul, His Human spirit that was completely out of fellowship with God during which time He paid for the sins of the whole world, (1 Jn 2:2). So Christ Jesus in His Humanity endured the punishment for the sins of the whole world for all of eternity compressed into 3 hours while on the cross, (Mt 27:45-46; Mk 15:33-34; Lk 23:44-46). Further explanation of how this was accomplished by the Almighty Creator God through the Humanity of Christ Jesus is not provided in Scripture.

Since Christ Jesus is God and Man, His Diety could not die. So the many prophecies and accounts in Scripture of Christ Jesus dying on the cross can only have His Humanity in view - His Human Body, Human Soul and Human spirit, (refs., Isa 53:5-11; Ro 5:6-9, 18-19; 1 Jn 2:1-2). This corroborates that He set aside the expression of His Diety throughout His Humanity's ministry on earth culminating in His propitiatory sacrifice for the sins of all mankind.

So when Christ Jesus in His Humanity died spiritually - His Humanity was separated from fellowship with God - God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. Then just before He physically died, His Human soul and Human spirit were spiritually restored to fellowship with God - which occurred when He committed His Human spirit to the Father just before His Human body would physically die. Notice that He continued to set aside the expression of His Diety throughout the entire time on the cross even while suffering for the sins of the whole world.

And then His Humanity died physically upon the cross. His physical body ceased to function. It became inactive, not non-existent as some contend - as does any human physical body that dies. After physically dying, His Human soul and spirit continued to function outside of His physical body as happens to all humans when they physically die. And His soul and Human spirit like those human souls and spirits who are children of God, born of God, continued to be present with God, in fellowship with Him. As it is with all those who are children of God, born of God; so it is with the Firstborn of all creation, (ref. Ro 8:29; 2 Cor 5:1-8).

[Compare Mt 27:46-50]:

(Mt 27:46 NASB) "About the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, 'Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani?' that is, 'My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?'

(Mt 27:47 NASB) And some of those who were standing there, when they heard it, began saying, 'This man is calling for Elijah.'

(Mt 27:48 NASB) Immediately one of them ran, and taking a sponge, he filled it with sour wine and put it on a reed, and gave Him a Drink.

(Mt 27:49 NASB) But the rest of them said, 'Let us see whether Elijah will come to save Him.'

(Mt 27:50 NASB) And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His [Human] spirit."

[Compare Lk 23:44-46]:

(Lk 23:44 NASB) "It was now about the sixth hour, and darkness fell over the whole land until the ninth hour,

(Lk 23:45 NASB) because the sun was obscured; and the veil of the temple was torn in two.

(Lk 23:46 NASB) And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, 'Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit.' Having said this, He breathed His last."

[Compare Mk 15:33-37]:

(Mk 15:33 NASB) "When the sixth hour came, darkness fell over the whole land until the ninth hour.

(Mk 15:34 NASB) At the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, 'Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?' which is translated, 'My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?'

(Mk 15:35 NASB) When some of the bystanders heard it, they began saying, 'Behold, He is calling for Elijah.'

(Mk 15:36 NASB) Someone ran and filled a sponge with sour wine, put it on a reed, and gave Him a Drink, saying, 'Let us see whether Elijah will come to take Him down.'

(Mk 15:37 NASB) And Jesus uttered a loud cry, and breathed His last."

Then Christ Jesus' Human body was resurrected from the dead together with His Human soul and Human spirit by God into a glorified, eternal Human Body forever a part of the Essence of the Son of God, Who is God:

[Rev 1:10-18]:

(Rev 1:13 NASB) "and in the middle of the lampstands I [John v. 9)] saw one like [the] son of man, clothed in a robe reaching to the feet, and girded across His chest with a golden sash.

(Rev 1:14 NASB) His head and His hair were white like white wool, like snow; and His eyes were like a flame of fire.

(Rev 1:15 NASB) His feet were like burnished bronze, when it has been made to glow in a furnace, and His voice was like the sound of many waters.

(Rev 1:16 NASB) In His right hand He held seven stars, and out of His mouth came a sharp two-edged sword; and His face was like the sun shining in its strength.

(Rev 1:17 NASB) When I saw Him, I fell at His feet like a dead man. And He placed His right hand on me, saying, "Do not be afraid; I am the first and the last,

(Rev 1:18 NASB) and the living One; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades."

[Phil 3:20-21]:

(Phil 3:20 NASB) "For our citizenship is in heaven, from which also we eagerly wait for a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ;

(Phil 3:21 NASB) who will transform the body of our humble state into conformity with the body of His glory, by the exertion of the power that He has even to subject all things to Himself."

[Mt 17:2]:

(Mt 17:1 NASB) "Six days later Jesus took with Him Peter and James and John his brother, and led them up on a high mountain by themselves.

(Mt 17:2 NASB) And He was transfigured before them; and His face shone like the sun, and His garments became as white as light.

(Mt 17:5 NASB) While he was still speaking, a bright cloud overshadowed them, and behold, a voice out of the cloud said, 'This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!'

(Mt 17:9 NASB) As they were coming down from the mountain, Jesus commanded them, saying, 'Tell the vision to no one until the Son of Man has risen from the dead.' "

Christ Jesus' Humanity is most often on display in Scripture, as opposed to His Diety, although both exist at the same time within Him. Many of the passages which refer to the Humanity of Jesus Christ are used by objectors to refute the doctrine of the Trinity. These objectors maintain that since these particular passages prove out our Lord's Humanity then His Diety is disproved. This is illogical reasoning. Consider that a man's personality as he conducts himself at work is expressed in one manner which one might falsely conclude was the only manner in which he expressed himself. But when that man is at home with his family, he might conduct himself in yet a different manner.

Just as visible light is a composite made up of 7 basic colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet; and if only one of the colors was visible from a particular point, (as our Lord's Humanity was at times), this would not indicate that the other colors did not exist and could be visible at other times. An example of Christ Jesus being referred to in His Humanity is when He was baptized by John the Baptist (Mt 3:16; Mk 1:9; Lk 3:21; Jn 1:32). These passages refer to the time when God the Holy Spirit indwelt the Human spirit of Christ Jesus, visible as a dove to author John; and not when the Son of God temporarily occupied a solely human Jesus, as some contend. For the Son of God, the Christ added to Himself Humanity which Humanity was conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of a woman, (Mt 1:18, Lk 1:30-35 - evidently a permanent, inseparable addition to His Diety), until His Humanity's death on the cross, (Phil 2:8) - with the exception of His transfiguration, (Mt 17:2-9).

God, being omnipresent, (Ps 139:1-24), means that not only is He present everywhere in the universe, (Job 9:1-35; Ps 29:1-11); and at every point in the universe all of His Attributes are present at infinitely full capacity. God's powers and attributes, in other words, being absolutely infinite cannot be diluted because they are spread out in omnipresence over every single point in the universe. Therefore it is not beyond the capacity of God to become a man / add Humanity to His Essence, (Jn 1:1-14), and have His full capacity in all of His attributes and powers within that single man as God, yet exercise only the powers of His Humanity in His Humanity. Recall that since God gave dominion over the earth to man who lost it to Satan, (Gen 1:28 & Acts 26:18); then God's purpose in adding Humanity to Himself was to live the life of a Perfect Man and thereby be justified as a Man, not God, in paying the penalty for the sins of the whole world, (2 Cor 5:21; 1 Jn 2:2) - thus reconciling Humanity to God by each individual expressing a moment of faith alone in Christ alone as Savior, (Ro 5:1-11).

****** END OF EXCERPT FROM PHILIPPEANS CHAPTER TWO ******

[Jn 1:1-2 cont.]:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning."

So our Lord Jesus Christ is God...the God Who exists as one God with three personalities - - - - -

God the Father

God the Son

God the Holy Spirit

What is being taught here from God's word is often called the doctrine (teaching) of the Trinity or of the Triune God. Trinity: A doctrinal or theological word which does not appear in Scripture but which is a term which is used to describe the God of the Bible with respect to His being one God with three Personalities. So, the fact that the word Trinity does not appear in Scripture does not negate the truths which the term Trinity represents in God's Word. More information is revealed about our one God with three Personalities as the Gospel of John moves on. The occurrence in history of trios of pagan gods does not provide conclusive evidence that these are the origin of the doctrine of the Trinity. Satan has counterfeited many truths from God's Word. An important rule in the interpretation of God's Word must be followed: SIMILARITY DOES NOT PROVE IDENTITY. Since the Trinity is evident in Scripture at the very beginning of Genesis, (Gen 1:1-2), and thus at the beginning of time and is even indicated as an eternal truth without beginning, then nothing predates it and can therefore be proved as establishing the groundwork for the concept of the Trinity. Let's consider thirteen important summary points about the Trinity:

SUMMARY POINT #1 ON THE TRINITY

1) Herein lies a mystery as revealed in Scripture. God has provided evidence that He does exist as a Triune God; but in the final analysis the belief that God is one God of three Personalities is based on trusting that what God says in His Word is true: Scripture always teaches that there is one God with three distinct Personalities:

God the Father

God the Son

God the Holy Spirit

One might comment to those who find the thought of a Triune God difficult by stating that if water which God created can have three states: solid, liquid and vapor (...three personalities if you will), then surely Almighty God Who created water can exist in three Persons. Light is another good illustration of this point: Visible light is made up of seven basic colors - red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. These colors all function together in a unity...................

(as the Personalities of God function in a unity in a much greater, infinite way),

...........................These colors all function together in a unity in a way that is not fully understood in detail to bring us visible white light. Yet that light consists of all seven colors! At times, one or more of the seven colors functions separately, as in a rainbow or a sunset, and it is then made clear that light is a unity which consists of more than one component - or more than one personality if you will. So just as light which was created by God has more than one personality and is not understood in all of its aspects, so too can God have more than one Personality and not be understood in all the ways He exists and functions.

Incidentally, none of the authors of Scripture refers to God as being limited to one Personality. They often, however, refer to a particular One of God's Personalities in their writings; this not being proof that the doctrine of the Trinity is false any more than the observing of one of the colors which comprise light would exclude the existence of one of the other colors, nor would it disprove the composite nature of light.

One might also defend the truth of the Trinity by indicating that each one of us has a number of personalities also: a man may be a father, husband and son with respect to his relationships with other people.

The doctrine of the Trinity is like the physical science of gravity. Most people have a clear understanding of some aspects of gravity. They operate in their daily lives with a 'religious' type trust in the reliability and truths that they do understand about gravity. Yet there is no clear in depth, detailed understanding by mankind of how gravity precisely works. People just trust in its unfailing ability to do what it has always done in their lives. No one has yet 'fallen' off the earth into outer space. So it is with the doctrine of the Trinity which is expressed in God's Word. Faithful believers have a clear understanding of some aspects of the Trinity and they operate in their daily lives with a faithful trust in the reliability and truths that they understand about God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. Yet there is no clear understanding presented in God's word as to how the doctrine of the Trinity precisely works. There are, therefore, some teachings in God's Word that are beyond the thoughts and ways of finite man - beyond his understanding:

[Isa 55:8-9]:

(v. 8) " 'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Neither are your ways My ways,' declares the Lord."

(v. 9) For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways, And My thoughts than your thoughts."

Faithful believers just trust in God's unfailing Word and His ability to do what He has always done in their lives, which includes His existence and operation as a Triune God.

A number of doctrines of Scripture are understood in part and accepted by faith as true. Walter Martin provides four important examples, (The Kingdom of the Cults, Bethany House, Minneapolis, 1985, p.65):

"First, does God give us a reason for creating Lucifer and allowing him to rebel against the Almighty? Is such a reason found in the Scripture? It is not, and yet we must believe that he exists, that he opposes God and that all references in the Scripture to Satan are authoritative. God demands that we exercise faith in their objective truth, yet He never gives a reason for it.

Second, does God anywhere give to man a 'reasonable' explanation of how it is possible that He exists in Trinity - as three Persons while at the same time retaining oneness of nature and essence? No. Never in Scripture is this explained. Here we see a gross inconsistency of..[objectors']...reliance upon reason in their rejection of the Trinity. When compared to their acceptance of the miracles of Jesus, one wonders what they consider 'reasonable'. If they can believe that Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead, changed the water into wine, and fed five thousand with only two fishes and five loaves, without a 'reasonable' explanation as to 'how' He did this, should the 'how' of the Trinity be of more difficulty in 'reasonableness'? Surely the former is every much as mysterious as the latter!

Third, does God anywhere give the grieving parent who has just lost a child a 'reasonable' explanation as to the 'why'? That certain physical catastrophies can be traced to the results of sin upon mankind, no one will argue. But is God under any obligation to furnish the parent with a 'reason' as to why his child in particular was taken? No. Never do the Scriptures address the issue. Yet, through it all God asks us to believe that these seemingly indescribable evils will ultimately work out His divine plan, and He asks us at times to believe in Him against reason and with the eyes of faith.........

Fourth...It is unquestionably true that God through His Word appeals to our reason; were it not so we could not understand His desires.

So not being able to understand a doctrine of Scripture does not negate that doctrine.

SUMMARY POINT #2 ON THE TRINITY

The testimony of others cannot be used as conclusive proof that the Trinity is true or false.

The testimony of others cannot be used as conclusive proof that the Trinity is true or false. Testimony from individuals who are spokesmen of religious organizations which do not teach the true gospel of salvation is untrustworthy. This is due to the individual's reliance upon human viewpoint reasoning instead of God's viewpoint from Scripture.

Walter Martin states, Op. Cit., p.62),

"The claim...[by some objectors to the Trinity]...that [early church leaders such as] Tertullian and Theophilus propagated and introduced the threefold unity of God into Christianity is ridiculous and hardly worth refuting. Any unbiased study of the facts will convince the impartial student that before Tertullian or Theophilus lived the doctrine was under study and considered sound."

Objectors to the Trinity often point to so-called notable Christians of the past who have rejected the doctrine of the Triune God - suggesting that the Trinity was a fabrication made up long after the early church began. Yet history shows that thousands upon thousands of believers from the past to the present ages including early church fathers espoused the doctrine of the Trinity and the Diety of Christ. And they showed clear understanding of this truth from Scripture. Although testimony from the majority of the leaders of the early church is not conclusive proof of the veracity of the Trinity, it is extremely noteworthy and effective in refuting the claims of objectors to the Trinity who maintain that the early church did not believe in the Trinity at all. Following is written testimony that the early church did indeed believe in and teach the doctrine of the Trinity as it is in fact taught in Scripture:

In his 'Epistle to the Ephesians', Ignatius, a disciple of Polycarp, (who was a disciple of John's), stated the following, (Quoted from 'The Apostolic Fathers', by J.B. Lightfoot, Baker Book House, Grand Rapids, Mich, 1978):

[Epistle of Ignatius to the Ephesians chapter 1:Intro, (p.63 of 'The Apostolic Fathers')]:

"Ignatius, who is also Theophorus, unto her which hath been blessed in greatness through the plenitude of God the Father; which hath been the foreordained before the ages to be for ever unto abiding and unchangeable glory, united and elect in a true passion, by the will of the Father and of Jesus Christ our God; even unto the church which is in Ephesus (of Asia), worthy of all felicitation: abundant greeting in Christ Jesus and in blameless joy."

Epistle of Ignatius to the Romans chapter 4: Introd, (p.75 of 'Apostolic Fathers')]:

"Ignatius, who is also Theophorous, unto her that hath found mercy in the bountifulness of the Father Most High and of Jesus Christ His only Son; to the church that is beloved and enlightened through the will of Him who willed all things that are, by faith and love towards Jesus Christ our God; even unto her that hath the presidency in the country of the region of the Romans, being worthy of God, worthy of honour, worthy of felicitation, worthy of praise, worthy of success, worthy in purity, and having the presidency of love, walking in the law of Christ and hearing the Father's name; which church also I salute in the name of Jesus Christ the Son of the Father; unto them that in flesh and spirit are united unto His every commandment, being filled with the grace of God without wavering, and filtered clear from every foreign stain; abundant greeting in Jesus Christ our God in blamelessness."

[Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians chapter 1:14, (p. 99 of 'The Apostolic Fathers')]:

"For I am persuaded that ye are well trained in the sacred writings, and nothing is hidden from you. But to myself this is not granted. Only, as it is said in these scriptures, "Be ye angry and sin not", and "Let not the sun set on your wrath.. Blessed is he that remembereth this; and I trust that this is in you. Now may the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, and the eternal High-priest Himself, the (Son of) God Jesus Christ, build you up in faith and truth, and in all gentleness and in all avoidance of wrath and in forbearance and long suffering and in patient endurance and in purity; and may He grant unto you a lot and portion among His saints, and to us with you, and to all that are under heaven, who shall believe on our Lord and God Jesus Christ and on His Father "Who raised Him from the dead. Pray for all the saints." Pray also "for kings" and powers and princes, and "for them that persecute" and hate "you", and for "the enemies of the cross" that your fruit may be "manifest among all men", that ye may be perfect in Him."

Scottish theologian James Orr in excerpts from his lectures given before the Western Theological Seminary, Allegheny, Pa, in 1897, stated the following, ('Progress of Dogma, Fleming H. Revell, Old Tappan, New Jersey):

[pp. 176-177]: "This leads me to observe that, to do justice to the Christological findings of the ancient Church, it is necessary to keep in view what precisely it was which the Church set before it as its aim in these decisions....In truth, however, what the Church aimed at was not so much to furnish an exhaustive definition - metaphysical or other - of what it always recognised to be an inaffable 'mystery of godliness,'1.......

1"The watchword of the Alexandrians, Neander says, was 'the ineffable, incomprehensible, transcendant union of natures' [i.e., the union of the natures of Diety and humanity in Christ] (iv p. 120). Cf. Harnack, iv. p. 174.

....In truth, however, what the Church aimed at was not so much to furnish an exhaustive definition - metaphysical or other - of what it always recognised to be an inaffable 'mystery of godliness,1 as rather to maintain the integrity of the Christian fact against theories and speculations which did profess to explain it, but in reality impinged upon and mutilated it in a variety of directions. Christian faith may not be able to solve the mystery of the incarnation, but it may recognise that certain theories do conflict with vital religious interests, and may feel called upon to contend against them very earnestly on that account. WE may be conscious, for example, of our inability to see into the depths of this great subject, and yet be able to perceive very clearly that the integrity of Christ's humanity is compromised by the denial to Him of a true human soul - which was the error of Apollinaris; further, that it does not comport with the Christian fact to resolve Christ's single person into two - which was the error of Nestorius, again, that there is something wrong in representing the nature of Christ as a mixture of fusion of deity and humanity - a tertium quid, which preserves neither nature in its integrity - which was the Eutychian and Monophysite error; or, finally, that it is erroneous to restrict this fusion even to the element of will in Christ - which was the Monothelite error.....

[Notice that the early church repeatedly attempted to answer the various heretical viewpoints about the dual nature of Christ - His Diety and His humanity - which the true church to this day firmly holds to]

....In opposing these various errors, the Church....

[Mr Orr is referring here to the true believers of the ancient church as also written about by Luke as the first century church in the Book of Acts]

In opposing these various errors, the Church did not profess to be giving a rationale of the incarnation on its own account, but only to be warding off theories on one side or the other by which the integrity of the fact was threatened... ["the fact" = The fact of the dual nature of Christ - His Deity and His humanity]

[p. 192] "A few words are necessary on this Chalcedonian Creed, [A statement of beliefs of the early church in 451 A. D.]...........

After endorsing the Creeds of Nicea and Constantinople, [which also affirm the dual nature of Christ as both Deity and humanity]......it goes on to define the true doctrine of Christ's Person in the following terms - 'One and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only-begotten, confessed in two natures, without separation.' ....The aim of the creed, therefore, is to assert the unity of the Person along with the distinctness of the natures."

SUMMARY POINT #3 ON THE TRINITY

TRUTHS FROM SCRIPTURE SUCH AS THE TRINITY ARE CONTRARY TO 'NATURAL'

HUMAN REASONING. THEY ARE ONLY UNDERSTOOD THROUGH THE TEACHING MINISTRY OF GOD THE HOLY SPIRIT.

Truths from God's Word are often hard to follow and contrary to 'normal' reasoning. 'Normal' reasoning is in actuality ABNORMAL being contaminated by man's sin nature that he is born with, (Ro 5:12; Ps 5:5). This so called 'normal reasoning' cannot understand truths from God's Word and instead chooses to believe untruths. Truths from Scripture are only understood when God the Holy Spirit intervenes in the mind of an individual and enables that individual to understand and believe. Many deeper truths from Scripture can only be understood and accepted when God the Holy Spirit has regenerated the human spirit and indwelt the individual thus providing that individual with the capacity to understand and believe and obey what God has said in His Word. Once one has become a believer, then all of Scripture is open for that believer to understand:

[1 Cor 2:12-16]:

(v. 12) "Now we [believers, v.1:1-2; 2:1] have received, not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit Who is from God, [1 Cor 12:13] that we might know the things freely given to us by God,

[So, verse 12 of 1 Cor chapter 2 states that "we" meaning the people to whom the letter is addressed - the saints, the believers at the Corinth - and all believers....

"we [believers] ...have received...the Spirit Who is from God." So all church age believers receive the baptism of the Holy Spirit at the point of trusting alone in Christ alone as Personal Savior, (Eph 1:13-14; Gal 3:2, 1 Cor 12:13). Note that during the transitional period of that 'first' Pentecost there were some who had already believed before the Holy Spirit 'came'. They were baptized after they believed - having already been believers beforehand, Acts 2:4; 19:1-7), but this period of transition is in the past and all believers afterward are baptized with the Spirit at the point of being saved. Compare 1 Cor 12:13; Eph 1:13-14; Gal 3:2]

[1 Cor 2:12-16 cont.]:

(v. 12 cont.) "Now we [believers, 1 Cor 2:1-2; 2:1] have received, not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit Who is from God, [1 Cor 12:13] that we might know the things freely given to us by God,

(v. 13) which things we also speak, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words.

[This does not say that we are not to study God's Word because God teaches us exclusively through the Spirit without our effort. What this verse is saying is that the words of Scripture that believers are commanded to study, (2 Ti 2:15), are made understandable not by virtue of what we use as human wisdom to teach us but we understand the meaning of words from Scripture by virtue of God the Holy Spirit's teaching us what they mean as we earnestly study them. It takes God the Holy Spirit, verse 13 says, to teach us what the words of Scripture mean. But first, believers must do their part by properly studying Scripture in accordance with the way God has sovereignly set His Word up to be studied, (Eph 4:11-13 & 2 Tim 2:15).

[1 Cor 2:12-16 cont.]:

(v. 12 cont.) "Now we [believers] have [all] received, not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit Who is from God, that we might know the things freely given to us by God,

(v. 13) which things we also speak, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words.

The phrase from verse 13: "combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words" is a key to understanding the roles that God and the believer play in the believer's understanding of Scripture: God's Word is "taught...by the Spirit" by "combining...thoughts" which are provided by God the Holy Spirit "with" the "words" which a believer has studied and learned by the sweat of his brow from God's Word:

[2 Ti 2:15]:

"Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, handling accurately the word of truth."

[1 Cor 2:12-16 cont]:

(v. 14) But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God; for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised.

(v. 15) But he who is spiritual appraises all things, yet he himself is appraised by no man."

[An unbeliever does not have the capacity - is not equipped - to understand spiritual things. His mentality is so completely contaminated with his inbred sin nature, (Ro 8:6-8), that he can ONLY reason with human viewpoint which is diametrically opposed to the divine viewpoint which is necessary to understand God's Word. On the other hand, believers are permanently indwelt with the Conveyor of divine viewpoint: the Holy Spirit, (Eph 1:13-14; 5:18-30). The believer who is spiritual, i.e., ANY believer who permits himself to be filled, that is to say, CONTROLLED, by the permanently indwelling Spirit, (Eph 1:13-14; 5:18-20), appraises, i.e., evaluates all matters with the divine viewpoint that God the Holy Spirit provides in him through his study of God's Word. So it is not true as some suggest that some believers have AVAILABLE to them a special, deeper understanding of Scripture over other believers. While ANY believer does not grieve & quench the Holy Spirit, (Eph 4:30; 1 Thes 5:19-22) with disobedience and unconfessed sin, i.e., while he is maintaining fellowship with Almighty God, (1 John 1:2-9), i.e., while he is filled with, (controlled by), the Spirit, (Eph 5:18-20), then God the Holy Spirit makes available for those moments to His faithful child a full understanding of God's Word. Whether or not the child of God then pursues what is available to him through the earnest study of God's Word is up to him.

[1 Cor 2:12-16 cont.]:

(v. 16) For Who has known the mind of the Lord, the he should instruct Him? But we [believers - ALL believers] have the mind of Christ."

["But we have the mind of Christ" = But we - ALL - believers, not just a few so called 'anointed' ones - have the perfect mind of Christ with which to understand the deepest things of the Spirit. If all believers have the mind of Christ then all are given the capacity - without exception - of understanding and making judgments about all things including God's Word, (v.15). This verse again refutes the idea that some believers have a special understanding of Scripture on a deeper spiritual level. An individual who does not have the mind of Christ, who is not a believer would not have a clear understanding of what God's Word teaches. An individual is not a believer, i.e., regenerated or saved, who has not trusted alone in Christ alone for salvation, (Titus 3:4-7; Eph 2:8-9; Ro 11:6; John 3:16). Many religious organizations do not teach regeneration by faith alone in Christ alone. So teaching which comes from unsaved individuals who represent certain unbelieving organizations is not trustworthy. An individual who is regenerated may still choose to short circuit God's teachings and believe the lies rather than understand, believe and obey the truth. Even Christians can espouse untruths. God's Word is to be taught by one believer to another. If a believer forsakes the gathering of the "elect" or does not permit himself to become teachable by others, which is God's sovereign order of how a believer is to grow spiritually, (Eph 4:11-13), then he will indeed not be well instructed in God's word. The result will be that doctrines like that of the Trinity will not be clearly understood. The unteachable Christian will then fall back to human viewpoint reasoning which is influenced by his sin nature. Having quenched the teaching of God the Holy Spirit by going negative to instruction from God's word, (1 Thes 5:19-22), a believer can fall back into spiritual ignorance and be in the same willful ignorance as unbelievers are, (2 Thes 2:10-12). Although it is obviously possible for God to teach an individual spiritual truths without that individual making an effort this is not God's sovereign way during the church age. Man must do his part in order for the Holy Spirit to do His. This is in part the purpose of God's use of spiritual gifts:

[Eph 4:11-13]:

(v. 11) "And He gave some as apostles, and some as prophets, and some as evangelists, and some as pastors/teachers,

(v. 12) for the equipping of the saints for the work of service, to the building up of the body of Christ;

(v. 13) until we all attain to the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to a mature man, to the measure of the stature which belongs to the fulness of Christ."

If the believer does not do his job by studying God's Word under the teaching ministry of a pastor/teacher in order to show himself approved, (2 Tim 2:15), by presenting himself at the gathering of the elect in order to be taught by those with the sovereign gift of teacher, (Heb 10:25), so that he may be ready with an answer, (1 Pet 3:15), so that he may be able to contend for his faith against those who teach false doctrine, (Jude 3, Phil 1:29) - then the Holy Spirit has little material in that believer's mentality to work with and the believer will lack spiritual growth and discernment.

SUMMARY POINT #4 ON THE TRINITY

Jesus Christ is God Himself

One cannot truthfully say according to Scripture that Jesus Christ was just a god who was created....like some mythical god of thunder or a supernatural being.... because Scripture teaches that JESUS CHRIST IS GOD HIMSELF:

[Jn 1:1b]:

"kai ...Theos en ..o ...logos"

"and ..God ...was the Word "

(subject) (no article) (predicate nominative)

In the original Greek that God inspired John to write there is no article in front of "Theos" = "God". Therefore the noun is said to be anarthrous, i.e., without an article. In addition to that, the verb "was" = "en" is copulative, i.e. joins the two subjects = "Theos" and = "Logos" in meaning.

Walter Martin states, (Op Cit, p. 85):

'The subject of the sentence is "Word" ("Logos"), the verb, "was". There can be no direct object following "was" since according to grammatical usage intransitive verbs take no objects but take instead predicate nominatives which refer back [in meaning] to the subject, in this case, "Word" ("Logos")..........

a definite predicate nominative (in this case, "Theos" - "God") never takes an article when it precedes the verb ("was") as we find in John 1:1. It is therefore easy to see that no article is needed for "Theos" ("God") and to translate it 'a god' is both incorrect grammar and poor Greek since "Theos" is the predicate nominative of "was" in the third sentence-clause of the verse and must refer back to the subject, "Word" (Logos). Christ, then, if He is the Word "made flesh" (John 1:14) can be no one else except God unless the Greek text and consequently God's Word be denied.'

Therefore the qualities of God, i.e., His divine essence, are indicated as qualities which are inherent in "logos" = "the Word" = Jesus Christ. So "Theos" in this verse being without the definite article means that Jesus Christ, the Word, has the nature, qualities and essence of the One and only Jehovah God.

"A god" with a little "g" or "a God" with a capital "G" do not apply here. Notice the order of the words which God inspired John to write, (which most translations do not take steps to indicate): "And God was the Word" emphasizing that the qualities and essence of God have always been the personal qualities and essence of the Word, Jesus Christ. Upon saying the words that John wrote and reflecting on their literal meaning, one can only say the Word, Jesus Christ is indeed God.

Inspite of all of this, objectors still claim that John 1:1 indicates that Jesus Christ is a god. They often insert the indefinite article 'a' in the translation in order to force their false viewpoint: 'and the Word was a god.' However, there is no indefinite article 'a' in the Greek, so one cannot arbitrarily insert one in the translation without considering the context. By translating Jn 1:1 to read that Jesus Christ was 'a god', objectors violate the grammatical rules of the copulative verb "en", and the anarthrous noun, "Theos"; and ignore the emphatic position of "Theos" at the beginning of the phrase in order to force their own false interpretation. Thus they deny the diety of our Lord Jesus Christ and set up a major contradiction with the rest of Scripture. If this construction were correct: i.e., that every time that no article is present the indefinite article applies then many other verses in God's Word would be in error.

Walter Martin states, (op cit. p.86):

To be consistent in this rendering of 'a god,' [objectors] would have to translate every instance where the article is absent as 'a god (nominative), of a god (genitive), to or for a god (dative)...This they do not do in Matthew 5:9; 6:24; Luke 1:35, 78; John 1:6, 12, 13, 18; Romans 1:7, 17, etc.'

For example:

If Jn 1:18 were applied under this contrived rule of 'a god' when no article is present then God's Word here in the gospel of John would state that Jehovah God Almighty is merely a finite created god: 'No one has ever seen a god, but the one and only son, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.' ['him' = the Father Who is 'a god' - a created god??? Notice that this deteriorates into nonsense]

[Mt 5:9]:

"Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called sons of God." now must become:

'Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called sons of a god'

[Mt 6:24]:

"No one can serve two masters. Either he will hate the one and love the other, or he will be devoted to the one and despise the other. You cannot serve both God and Money."

"You cannot serve both God and Money." = now must be retranslated in accordance with the objectors' viewpoint: 'You cannot serve both a god and money'

Phil 2:11 becomes 'and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is a Lord, to the glory of a god the Father.'

The Father here becomes a god, according to the objectors' 'a god' rule.

Lk 1:35 becomes, '...The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and a power of a Most High will overshadow you.' Indicating that there is more than one "Most High" - more than one Almighty God, which is a contradiction in terms.

Again and again when this contrived 'rule' of 'a god' is forced on God's Word, Almighty God is reduced in status from the One and only Eternal Almighty God to a mere created god, Who other passages say doesn't even exist, (cp Isa 43:10).

Jn 1:6 then becomes, 'There came a man who was sent from a god; his name was John'

Jn 1:12 becomes, 'Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, He gave the right to become children of a god' ['a god' referring back to God Almighty Himself]

Compare Jn 1:13, 3:2, 21; 9:16, 33; Ro 1:7, 17-18; 1 Cor 1:30, 15:10; Phil 2:13 Titus 1:1 and many many more. Objectors even go so far as to claim that the first word God in Jn 1:1 means God Almighty:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,.."

"God" = "Theon"

But the second time the word "God" occurs in Jn 1:1, objectors claim that this god is a lesser, created god with a little 'g':

"...and the Word was God."

"God" = "Theos"

This does violence to basic New Testament koine Greek grammatical rules which the people of Biblical times established when they used the common koine Greek language of their day. It was their language which they established the correct usage of and not some 20th century objectors who decide to change the rules 2000+ years later to suit their purposes. An examination of any secular Greek writing of Biblical times will show that in the koine Greek a noun is given different endings called 'inflections' according to its usage in the sentence. This happens even in English today in the possessive and plural cases.

Eugene Van Ness Goetchius states, ('The Language of the New Testament', Charles Scribner's Sons, New York, 1965, p. 31):

'We can now proceed to define the parts of speech for Greek. We begin with nouns, presenting for the present only as much of the complete paradigm [pattern, diagram] as is necessary for the present purpose. Apart from the 'possessive' forms indicated by -'s (or -s'), English nouns are inflected [changed in accordance with different usages] only for number (i.e., they have no ending in the singular and add -s or some other inflection to form the plural). Greek nouns are also inflected for number, and, in addition, their inflections serve as grammatical devices with much the same functions as those of word order in English. Thus...........

[2 Cor 9:7]:

object subject

" ilaron gar doten agapa o Theos"

"cheerful for giver loves the God"

i.e.,

"for God loves a cheerful giver"

[Mr Goetchius goes on to say]:

'the endings "- " and "- " label the words which bear them as 'subject' and object,' respectively. This function of the endings is called case; each ending of a Greek noun usually indicates both case and number, as the following paradigm illustrates:

GREEK ENGLISH

singular nominative = Theos = God

(as in 'God loves us')

singular accusative Theon = God (as in 'We love God')

plural nominative = Theoi = gods (as in 'The gods are angry')

plural accusative = Theous = gods (as in 'Pagans worship god's')

Note that there are other cases such as the genitive, (possessive: 'THE MAN'S SLAVE'), and dative, ('The queen gave the slave TO THE WIDOW) cases which require their own pecular endings. And there are prepositions which require their own peculiar endings.

The one in question in Jn 1:1 is the preposition "with" = "pros" which requires the accusative ending if the meaning intended is to be "with" i.e., when motion is indicated by the verb - as in Jn 1:1 the Word was with God face to face. Hence, we have THE SAME WORD FOR GOD in both places of John 1:1 WITH THE SAME MEANING FOR GOD = THE ONE AND ONLY ALMIGHTY GOD. The first time "God" appears in Jn 1:1 with an ACCUSATIVE ending because of the preposition "with" and the second time "God" appears in Jn 1:1 with a nominative ending because the past tense "was" of the intransitive verb 'to be' demands such an ending, "God" here being in the predicate NOMINATIVE case.

However, let's suppose that the objectors have a case with their contrived rule of two god's in Jn 1:1, "theos" = god and "Theon" = God. Then the God in Jn 4:23-24 and many many other pasages must also be a lesser created god who is not Almighty God:

[Jn 4:23-24]:

(v. 23) " 'Yet a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks.

(v. 24) God is spirit, and His worshipers must worship in spirit and in truth.' "

"the God" = "o Theos" = a created lesser god who is referred to as God the Father in the previous verse??? This also deteriorates into nonsense and heresy.

[cp Jn 3:16]:

And in Luke we unmistakably have a reference to God Almighty in 20:37: "ton Theon" = God Almighty using the word Theos = God WITHOUT AN ARTICLE. Under the objector's contrived and arbitrary rule system, could both words now refer to a god or God or either one or neither one? On the other hand, koine Greek grammatical rules and the context DEMAND that the subject of this passage be God Almighty!

[Lk 20:37-38]:

(v. 37) " 'But in the account of the bush, even Moses showed that the dead rise, for he calls the Lord the God ["Theon"] of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.'

(v. 38) But He is not the God ["Theos" with no article] of the dead, but of the living, for to Him all are alive.' "

Finally, the objectors claim that Jn 1:1 establishes that Jesus Christ, the Word, has the qualities of Jehovah God but is not God Himself. This stance turns into utter nonsense however when their statement is examined in light of Who God is - His actual qualities:

One of the qualities of God is His eternality - having no beginning and no end. Objectors vehemently deny that Jesus Christ has no beginning or no end, yet this is a quality of God. Other qualities of God are His omnipotence, His omnipresence and His omniscience. Again, objectors deny our Lord these qualities. If we ran down the list of the qualities of God which are all infinite, objectors would deny any of these qualities for our Lord Jesus Christ. In light of this, how can these objectors then claim that Christ has the qualities of God? They contradict their own interpretation of John 1:1 because they know in their heart that only God can possess the qualities of God.

Furthermore, if God is truly the only God - i.e., there is no other God or god, then Jesus Christ could not be a god other than Jehovah God Himself or He is no God or god at all. Scripture testifies that there is no God or god other than Almighty God Himself:

[Isa 45:5a]:

"I am the Lord, and there is no other;

Besides Me there is no God."

[Isa 43:10-11]:

(v. 10) "'You are My witnesses,' declares the Lord,

'And My servant [Israel] whom I have chosen,

In order that you may know and believe Me,

And understand that I am He.

Before Me there was no God formed,

And there will be none after Me.

[So no God or god was or will be created. Jesus Christ cannot therefore be a created God]

(v. 11) I, even I, am the Lord;

And there is no Savior besides Me.' "

Furthermore, there is no Savior besides God. Verse 11 above indicates that there is only one Person Who is Savior: God and God alone. So if Scripture identifies Jesus Christ as Savior, and it does, then He must therefore be God. This cannot mean that God is Savior through Whom Christ is the agency of that salvation because verse 11 identifies the Personage Who alone is Savior and other verses which follow identify Christ as that Personal Savior, not just the agency of God's salvation:

Note in the following passage that the Lord Jesus Christ is our God and Savior as well as God the Father and God the Holy Spirit - all having their respective roles as Personal Savior in the redemption of mankind:

[Titus 3:4-6]:

(v. 4) But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind appeared,

(v. 5) He [God the Father] saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by [God] the Holy Spirit,

(v. 6) Whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior,

(v. 7) that being justified by His grace we might be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life."

Notice that verse 5 indicates that God is our Personal Savior. Then verse 6 indicates that Jesus Christ is our Personal Savior - IN THE SAME IDENTICAL CONSTRUCTION AND WAY THAT VERSE 5 INDICATES THAT GOD THE FATHER IS OUR PERSONAL SAVIOR. There is no distinction made such that one could say Christ is not the Savior but that He is merely God's agent through Whom we are saved. No, Jesus Christ IS the Savior, as God the Father is!

[Compare Eph 1:3-14]:

And if there is only one Savior, (Isa 43:11), and He is God then Jesus Christ is God:

[Titus 2:13]:

"Looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus;"

"the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ" = looks like this transliterated from the Greek:

"tes doxes ton ...megalou Theo kai

"the glory of the great .....God .and

Soteros emon Iesou Christou"

Savior .of our Jesus Christ "

Notice that the grammatical construction of this verse which was inspired by God to be written by the Apostle Paul demands that the appearing of the glory be that of One Person Who is described as "our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". Jesus Christ is literally and irrefutably described in this verse as being "Savior" and "God". Note that the glory of God cannot be attributed to Jesus Christ on an equal level with God without then attributing diety to Christ; for only God can have the full attributes of God on an equal level with Himself.

[1 Tim 4:10, cp Isa 43:10-11]:

"For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, Who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers."

So God the Father and Jesus Christ and God the Holy Spirit being the Savior are together Jehovah God Almighty. These passages leave no room for another God or god but the Triune Jehovah God Himself Who is our Savior:

GOD THE FATHER

GOD THE SON

GOD THE HOLY SPIRIT

SUMMARY POINT #5 ON THE TRINITY

The Son of God, the Son of Man is God

Objectors who insist that there are other Gods or gods point to passages in Scripture which contain words which can be translated 'god' in them. By this association they claim that since angels, humans and Satan are referred to by these words therefore Jesus Christ is also a god - a lesser, created god. They claim that the terms 'Son of God' and 'Son of Man' do not indicate our Lord's diety but His mortality for they also are used to refer to mortal men. A careful examination of each of these passages will reveal that they are not saying that God has created gods of any kind but that they were either His representatives on earth, (Ps 82:1-8), or that certain beings made themselves out to be gods, thus usurping the power of God Almighty for a season, (2 Cor 4:9).

[Psalm 82:1-8]:

(v. 1) "God takes His stand in His own congregation;

He judges in the midst of the rulers.

(v. 2) How long will you judge unjustly,

And show partiality to the wicked?

(v. 3) Vindicate the weak and fatherless;

Do justice to the afflicted and destitute.

(v. 4) Rescue the weak and needy;

Deliver them out of the hand of the wicked.

(v. 5) They do not know nor do they understand;

They walk about in darkness;

All the foundations of the earth are shaken.

(v. 6) I said, 'You are gods,

And all of you are sons of the Most High.

(v. 7) Nevertheless you will die like men, and fall like any one of the princes."

[Notice that the verdict is that those who were acting like they were gods were just mortal men after all. For verse 7 says, "Nevertheless you will die like men, and fall like any one of the princes."]

(v. 8) Arise, I God, judge the earth!

For it is Thou Who dost possess all the nations."

Dave Hunt and T.A. McMahon state in 'Seduction of Christianity', (Harvest House, Eugene, Or, 1985, pp 86-88):

'''In Psalm 82 God's judgment was pronounced against the rulers of Israel because they were acting like gods who were a law into themselves. In verses 6 and 7 God stated: "I said, 'You are gods.... Nevertheless you will die like men.' "

This Scripture and Jesus' quotation of it has given comfort to cultists and occultists and caused confusion among the unlearned. Mormons, for example, point to it as justification for their goal of godhood and support for their teaching that Satan told the truth when he offered godhood to Eve. Clearly that is a false application, for Psalm 82 does not say, 'Ye shall become gods,' as Mormons hope, but 'Ye are gods.' So whatever is meant by this statement, it refers to something that humans already are, not to some new status that we will eventually attain................................

"If man is not intended to be a god, then why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 to His accusers? [cp Jn 10:34-36] He was doing two things:

1) demonstrating that they didn't understand their own Scriptures, so were in no condition to condemn Him for saying that He was God; [even though that is precisely Who He claimed to be] and

2) showing them the depths and horror of their rebellion."

The Hebrew word which is translated "gods" which is transliterated, "'elohim" with a small "e" is used elsewhere in Scripture to refer to men which the One and only God appoints as His representative and authority on earth for a specific purpose - such as to be one of the Judges of Israel - to rule in accordance with God's sovereign will, (Ex 21:6). The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gensenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, Hendrickson, Peabody, Ma, 1979, p.43 defines the Hebrew word "elohim" as "rulers, judges [fully human and mortal] either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power."

[Dave Hunt, (cont.), pp. 87-88]:

'''The consequences of becoming gods are very clear. Jeremiah reminds Israel that the only true God is the Creator of the universe, and that He has declared that all who aspire to the status of being a god will perish:

[Jer 10:10]:

"The Lord is the true God; He is the living God and the everlasting King. At His wrath the earth quakes, and the nations cannot endure His indignation.

Thus shall you say to them, 'The gods that did not make the heavens and the earth shall perish from the earth and from under the heavens.' "

Thus all gods - all beings who make themselves out to be gods - other than the one true God will perish, because God has declared all gods other than Himself to be false, (cp Isa 43:10; 44:6b, 8). So Jesus Christ cannot be a god because He will never perish, (Dan 7:14).

The following passages further define God and god:

[** Isa 44:6b]:

"I [God] am the first and I am the last;

apart from Me there is no god."

apart from Me there is no god." =

"'elohiym 'ayinl .........bal' ..dey .........min"

" god .......there is no and at apart from Me"

[1 Cor 10:19-20]:

(v. 19) "What do I mean then? That a thing sacrificed to idols is anything, or that an idol is anything?

(v. 20) No; but I say that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons, and not to God; and I do not want you to become sharers in demons."

"No; but I say that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice" = those things which are offered to various pagan gods "they sacrifice" in fact to "demons" who are the power behind those false gods, making them out to be real.

"and not to God; and I do not want you to become sharers in demons" = those who sacrifice to idols, i.e., provide for these idols their wealth, time or life, (as many today sacrifice their time, life and wealth to their jobs or families beyond what God has decreed, they in essence are on the side of Satan and his demons. Compare Isa chapters 45 & 46. Often these false god have demonic influence behind them: (I Cor 10:20; Ps 106:36-38; Lev 17:7 (goat = demonic); De 32:17; Mt 4:9; Acts 19:26). For a season, Satan is the god of this world, (Jn 12:31; 14:30; Eph 2:2; 1 Cor 2:6) - but he is not God or a god - only acting as if he is a god by God's sovereign permission. So the god of this world, Satan, rules for a season:

[2 Cor 4:3-4]:

(v. 3) "And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are perishing,

(v. 4) in whose case the god of this world

["god of this world" = Satan, cp. Rev 12:9; Eph 6:12; 1 Ch 21:1; Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6]

(v. 4 cont.) in whose case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving, that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, Who is the image of God."

So the god of this world, Satan, rules for a season until it is time for him to be sent to the Lake of Fire, (Rev 20:1-3; 20:7-10).

The terms 'Son of God' and 'Son of Man' also require contextual examination to determine the meaning. The term 'son of' in Scripture often signifies identity or similarity with a characteristic that is presented in the context of the passage. For example:

[Isa 57:1-4]:

(v. 1) "The righteous man perishes, and no man takes it to heart;

And devout men are taken away, while no one understands.

For the righteous man is taken away from evil,

(v. 2) He enters into peace;

They rest in their beds,

Each one who walked in his upright way.

(v. 3) 'But come here, you sons of a sorceress,

Offspring of an adulterer and a prostitute.

(v. 4) 'Against whom do you jest?

Against whom do you open wide your mouth

And stick out your tongue?

Are you not children of rebellion,

Offspring of deceit,

This does not indicate that all men who are evil are naturally born sons of a sorceress or a prostitute but that they behave in an evil manner, taking on the evil characteristics the likes of a sorceress or a prostitute or an adulterer. They are in effect sons of rebellion and deceit.

[Isa 14:11-12]:

(v. 11) " 'Your pomp and the music of your harps

Have been brought down to Sheol;

Maggots are spread out as your bed beneath you,

And worms are your covering.

(v. 12) How you have fallen from heaven,

O star of the morning, son of the dawn!' "

Obviously, Satan was not procreated by the dawn but he did take on the characteristics of the beauty of the first light of dawn.

[Jer 49:33]:

"And Hazor will become a haunt of jackals,

A desolation forever;

No one will live there,

Nor will a son of man reside in it."

"a son of man" refers to humanity as opposed to other types of lifeforms. So when our Lord refers to Himself as the Son of God, He is stating that He has the characteristics of Almighty God - He is stating therefore that He is God. "The Son of God" is a technical term which refers to God Himself - the second Person of the Triune God. The doctrine of the diety of the Son of God is clearly taught even in the Old Testament:

[Pr 30:4]:

"Who has gone up to heaven and come down?..............

["Who" = "Who are the Holy Ones Who"]

(Pr 30:4 cont.) "Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of His hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in His cloak?

Who has established all the ends of the earth?

What is His name [God the Father] and the name of His Son [God the Son] ?

In Hebrew the word "Who" is literally translated, "Who are the Holy Ones Who" = PLURAL. Genesis 1:1 and many O.T. Testament passages state that it was God alone Who created the heavens and the earth, (cp Ps 8; 19:1; 33:6; 89:11; 104; 146:5; 148; Pr 3:19;

Isa 37:16; 40:28; Jer 10:12, 32:17; Zech 12:1). And here in Pr 30:4 it states that God the Father and God the Son have gone up to heaven and come down, gathered up the wind, wrapped up the waters and established, i.e., created the ends of the earth. Here right in the Old Testament we find a clear statement that there is more than one Personality in the Godhead! We have two of the Personalities of the Godhead specifically referred to: God the Father and God the Son.

So when our Lord refers to Himself as the Son of God the Jews understood Him completely:

[Jn 10:33, 36b, 39]:

(v. 33) '''The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God."

(v. 36) [Jesus said]"...do you say of Him, [speaking of Himself] Whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming'; because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?

(v. 39) Again they tried to seize Him, but He escaped their grasp."

The indispensable step in correctly interpreting God's Word must not be sidestepped: that of letting the words in Scripture say what they meant to those in ancient times - to whom they were originally written. So if Scripture says that the Jews 2000 years ago interpreted the phrase 'the Son of God' to indicate that "You ....make Yourself out to be God", (Jn 10:33b), then that is what the term 'the Son of God' means. The Jews were so convinced of the meaning of that phrase that they were preparing to kill our Lord for referring to Himself as God.

In the Book of Daniel, the term son of God is used to describe one who has the characteristics of a god:

[Dan 3:25]:

(Dan 3:25 NAS) "He [Nebuchadnezzar] answered and said, 'Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!' "

Dr J Vernon McGee states in "THRU THE BIBLE with J. Vernon McGee," Thomas Nelson Publishers, Nashville, 1982, p.547:

"This furnace apparently was an open furnace, and Nebuchadnezzar, who expected these men to expire at once, was amazed to see them alive and walking about in the fire.

Another amazing fact was to see a fourth Man whom Nebuchadnezzar described as being in the form 'like the Son of God.'

[KJV] That [phrase] should be translated 'like a son of gods.'.............................

Dr McGee is referring to the KJV of this verse which translation reads "the Son of God":

(Dan 3:25 K.J.V.) "He answered and said, 'Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God." A more accurate rendering is found in the NAS translation:

(Dan 3:25 N.A.S.) "and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!"

"son" = "bar", Hebrew = son singular.

"gods" = "elah" = Although the Hebrew text has the word "elah" = god = pagan god, singular; the phrase is best rendered "like a son of the gods" because Nebuchadnezzar is reflecting his belief in polytheism and was not referring in this verse to a particular god but rather to one who has the characteristics of one of his pagan gods, (ref Dan 3:28). The Hebrew "elah" can be rendered God or 'god' depending upon context.

So the fourth man appeared as a "son of" the pagan gods that the Babylonians imagined that they worshipped. In other words, the fourth man appeared to them in the likeness of a god, that is to say, he took on the characteristics of what the Babylonians envisioned were attributable to one of their gods. This phrase "like a son of the gods" does not therefore indicate that a pagan god actually procreated someone but that someone appeared to be as a god to them.

The Amplified Bible, which amplifies the meaning of the words and grammar and the background of the original languages in its translation, renders the verse best of all:

[Dan 3:25 Amplified]:

"He answered, 'Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they are not hurt! And the form of the fourth is like a son of the gods!"

So it is the context, background and other parallel passages which determine the meaning of "son of god" in Scripture. When our Lord Jesus Christ is referred to as 'Son' in Scripture the definite article is included; the context indicating a Unique, One of a Kind, Son Who is God Himself. The context in Dan 3:25 does not indicate that it is referring to the unique Son of God. Having no understanding or knowledge of such a Person as the Lord Jesus Christ at this time in his life, Nebuchadnezzar was referring NOT to our Lord but to what he understood of his own pagan religion which described such a one who was in the furnace as a son of a pagan god].

[McGee, cont.]

".......................Nebuchadnezzar had no knowledge of the living and true God at this time, although Daniel had spoken of Him. Having no spiritual perception, Nebuchadnezzar could only testify to His unusual appearance - He looked like one of the sons of the gods. However, I do believe that the fourth Man was the Son of God, the preincarnate Christ."

[Nebuchadnezzar thought that the fourth being was a son of a god, but unknown to him, He actually was THE SON OF THE TRUE AND ONLY GOD, THE PREINCARNATE JESUS CHRIST. Finally, notice verse 28 in Daniel]:

[Dan 3:28 cont]:

'Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-nego, who has sent His angel and delivered His servants who put their trust in Him, violating the king's command, and yielded up their bodies so as not to serve or worship any god except their own God.' "

It is evident from the above verse that Nebuchadnezzar was at this time a polytheist - who worshipped many pagan gods and just viewed the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-nego as the most powerful god at the time. So the term son in the ancient Hebrew and Greek languages often means identity, i.e., having the characteristics of, rather than human offspring or subordination. When the Jews used the word son in ancient days they often used it to describe likeness of nature. And Jesus Christ claimed that God was His Father in the sense of being like or equal to God:

[Jn 5:17-18]:

(v. 17) "But He [Jesus] answered them, 'My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working.'

(v. 18) For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because [they determined] He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."

So when our Lord called God His Father He was saying that He was just like God. And His enemies had no doubt in their minds that Jesus Christ was claiming to be God:

[Jn 10:30-33; 36b]:

(v. 30) "I and the Father are one.

(v. 31) The Jews took up stones again to stone Him.

(v. 32) Jesus answered them, 'I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?

(v. 33) The Jews answered Him, 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.'............"

[Jesus then says to the Jews]:

(v. 36b) "do you say of Him, [meaning Himself] Whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming'; because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?

[Dr John Danish states, (Berean Tape Ministry, Berean Memorial Church, Irving, Tx)]: "the Lord Jesus claimed to be God and His enemies knew it.....The term 'Son of God' [when it refers to Jesus] actually means Deity. [It] does not mean simply son of God the way we may say that every human being is a son of god because God created him............"

While God is Father of all men, not all men are children of God in the sense of being "born again" into His heavenly family, (Cp Jn 1:12). Those who are spiritually dead cannot have an intimate relationship with God until they become spiritually alive. It is true that all men are His sons and daughters in the sense that He made them in His image and provides for them...(Gen 1:26-30)..........

Even after man rebelled through Adam and Eve, (Gen 3:16-19), God still provides for all men, (Mt 5:45b; Ps 65:9-13; 147:8-9; Acts 14:16-17; Jer 5:24).....................

But men are His sons in the full sense only as they respond in faith to what He did for them through His one and only - unique - Son with a capital 'S', Jesus Christ, in order to overcome man's rebellion (his sin). Cp Gal 3:22 - 4:7; Ro 3:19-25a.

The children of God then are those who believe on the name of Jesus Christ, (Jn 1:12)......They are those who cease to rely on their own merits and achievements and put their trust in Christ instead. Such is the case in the aforementioned passages]

[Dr Danish, (cont.)]:

"This term ['Son of God' however] does not mean [in the context that Jesus used the term to refer to Himself] that [our Lord had] been adopted in salvation.......When this term was applied to Him it had a specific different technical meaning..........."

[Mt 26:63-66]:

(v. 63) "But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest said to Him, 'I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God.' "

["The Son of God" = The definite article "the" and the word "Son" are both singular indicating the unique Son of Almighty God rather than one of millions of believers who are sons and daughters of God in another sense, being born again by faith, (Jn 1:12). Children of God are referred to in Scripture either with an indefinite article 'a' or in the plural]

"Now [Dr Danish goes on to say] here these terms Christ and Son of God were equated in this fashion:

The Christ is equal to the Son of God.

And again, both of these terms indicate deity. So the high priest said, 'All right, we are putting it point blank to You, guilty or not guilty, are You the Son of God?' Now what did He mean when he was asking Jesus, 'Are You the Son of God?' He didn't mean, 'Are You created by God?'.....[or]....'Have You received eternal life...?' He meant, 'Are You saying that You are Deity?'...that You have the essence of Deity? That's what the term 'Son of God' meant in the mouth of the high priest. Now we know this from the verses which follow:

(v. 64) "Jesus said to him, 'You have said it yourself; ............"

"And when He [Jesus] said "You have said it yourself" He is saying in the affirmative: 'Yes, I am the Son of God', which is the same as saying, 'Yes, I am God.........'

(v. 63 cont.) "But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest said to Him, 'I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God.' "

(v. 64 cont.) "Jesus said to him, 'You have said it yourself; nevertheless I tell you, hereafter you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN.'

["the Son of Man" = when it is applied to Jesus Christ in the context of the unique Son of Man - no one else like Him - it is then the technical term for God in His humanity, cp Dan 7:13-14]

[Dr Danish, (cont.)]:

"Now the Lord Jesus not only said to him, 'Yes, I am God' but He said...'I am ...[the]...GodMan...and someday you will see Me sitting at the right hand of God the Father in all the power and majesty of Diety."

[This was such a loathsome statement for an unbelieving Jew to hear that he would tear his clothing in disgust and horror]:

[Mt 26:63-66 cont.]:

(v. 64 cont.) "Jesus said to him, 'You have said it yourself; nevertheless I tell you, hereafter you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN.'

(v. 65) "Then the high priest tore his robes,

"[This was] a Semitic expression of horror"

(v. 65 cont.) "Then the high priest tore his robes saying, 'He has blasphemed! What further need do we have of witnesses? Behold, you have now heard the blasphemy;

(v. 66) what do you think?' They answered and said, 'He is deserving of death!' "

"[So, Dr Danish continues to say] the term 'Son of God' as it applies to Jesus Christ refers to His Diety. It is a technical word used in a specialized way and the Sanhedrin which was trying Him understood it very very well. So Jesus claimed both the titles: He claimed the title, 'The Christ', He claimed the title, 'The Son of God', both of which are equated to diety.........

[Jn 19:7]:

"The Jews answered Him, 'We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because He made Himself out to be the Son of God.'"

"Now what did they mean? Should He die because He claimed salvation? No! Should He die because He had been adopted into the family of God [By saying He was a Son of God] No! They were saying He should die because He made Himself the Son of God because that meant He made Himself God............."

Consider what Scripture defines as the meaning of the term: 'Son of Man'.

C.I. Scofield states in footnote #4 in the Oxford NIV Scofield Study Bible, NIV,

C. I. Scoffield, Editor, Oxford University Press, 1984, p. 819:

"The expression 'son of man' is a common Semitic way of indicating an individual man (Ps. 4:2; 57;4; 58:1; 144:3; Jer 49:18, 33; 50:40; 51:43). God addresses Ezekial about ninety times by this title. In Dan. 7:13 the term is used to show that an actual man [Who is at the same time God] will come in the clouds of heaven to receive a worldwide kingdom. From this use in Daniel it came to refer to the glorious Messiah [Who is defined in Scripture as God Himself], and in such a sense Jesus utilized it calling Himself 'the Son of man eighty times in the Gospels."

[Notice: singular + THE = definite article = THE unique - one and only - Son of man singular:indicating Diety]

[Compare Jn 9:35-38]:

(v. 35) "Jesus heard that they had put him

["him" = the blind man who was healed by Jesus]

(v. 35 cont.) "Jesus heard that they had put him out [of the Temple]; and finding him, He said, 'Do you believe in the Son of Man?

(v. 36) He answered and said, 'And Who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?

(v. 37) Jesus said to him, 'You have both seen Him, and He is the One Who is talking with you.'

(v. 38) And he said, 'Lord, I believe.' And he worshipped Him.' "

So the man who was given sight recognized that the One Who claims to be the Son of Man is to be worshipped. And the blind man who was Jewish, (v.35), knew full well that only God is to be worshipped. The term 'the Son of Man' when it refers to our Lord in Scripture means God the Son in His role as the representative Man with respect to His mission, (Mt 11:19; Lk 19:10); His death and resurrection, (Mt 12:40; 20:18; 26:2), and His Second Coming, (Mt 24:37-44; Lk 12:4). A passage in Daniel confirms this:

[Dan 7:13-14]:

(v. 13) "In my [Daniel's] vision at night I liiked and there before me was One like the Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven.

["clouds" = here refer to angels, (Ps104:1-4]

(v. 13 cont.) He approached the Ancient of Days.....

["Ancient of Days" = a special name for God referring to His eternality - in this passage it refers to the Personality of the Father, (Dan 7:9)] (v. 13 cont.) He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into His presence.......

[So God the Son, Who is God and Man at the same time, appears in heaven in Daniel's vision of the future in His glorified human body. He is thusly led by angels into the throne room and the presence of God the Father before hosts, i.e. armies, of angelic beings and believers of ages past, (vv9-12)]

(v. 14) He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshipped Him....

["worshipped Him" = indicates our Lord's Diety, for only God is to be worshipped, (Dt 6:13; Mt 4:10)]

[Dan 7:13-14 cont.]:

(v. 14 cont.) He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshipped Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away; and His kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."

[It is in the name of the Son of Man in which universal judgment is committed to Him, (Jn 5:22,27). And in the Son of Man is fulfilled the Old Testament foreview of blessing and salvation through a coming Man, (Gen 1:26: 3:15; 12:3; Ps 8:4; 80:17; Isa 7:14: 9:6-7; 32:2). All of this is a function of God and God alone. So He Who bears the title of the Son of Man is God Himself]

SUMMARY PT #6 ON THE TRINITY

Only God can possess the qualities of God

[Jn 1:1-2 cont.]:

(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning."

"and the Word was God" = These words in verse 1b of John chapter 1 were written by the Apostle John in koine (everyday, common) Greek as inspired by God (2 Tim 3:16). They can only mean that God and the Word are the same...for that is what the words say..............................

especially in the order in which John wrote them which emphasizes God in His essence:

"..and God was the word"

According to Jn 1:1, Jesus Christ the Word has the qualities of God. And there is no being that can possess the qualities of God unless He is God Himself. For these qualities must come from a nature which is eternal - which has no beginning and only God has no beginning.

For God is exclusively and uniquely called: "THE EVERLASTING GOD" - "THE ETERNAL ONE" (Gen 21:33; Isa 57:15)

SUMMARY POINT #7 ON THE TRINITY:

Exclusive attributes and prerogatives of God which are true of Jesus Christ

Jesus Christ is eternal as God is eternal:

[Jn 1:1-2 cont.]:

(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning."

The verb "was" = "en" which John chose to use throughout verses 1 & 2 indicates a continuous/forever action in the past.....an eternal existence without beginning. So the Word, Jesus Christ, has no beginning. He has always been. He is God and He is eternal - everlasting:

[Compare Isa 9:6]:

"For to us a child is born,

to us a son is given,

and the government will be on His shoulders.

And He will be called

Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."

Our Lord evidenced the exclusive attributes and prerogatives of God as detailed in Scripture. Note that if one of the following is true of our Lord then Jesus Christ would have to be God:

He doesn't just have eternal life, He is eternal life: Jn 1:1-3; Micah 5:2; Isa 9:6; Jn 11:23; 14:6

And God is eternal: Gen 21:33; Ex 3:14; Dt 33:27; Ps 9:7, 90:2, 93:2; 102:12; 135:13; 145:13; 146:10; Isa 40:28; Jer 10:10; Dan 4:34; Hab 1:12

He has the absolute Holiness of God which is God's exclusive expression of His Absolute Righteousness and Justice: Lk 1:35; Heb 7:26

And God is Holy: Lev 11:44-45, 21:8; 1 Sam 2:2; Ps 22:3, 60:6, 93:3; Isa 6:3, 43:15, 48:17; 49:7; 57:15; Amos 4:2; Lk 1:49; Acts 3:14; Rev 4:8.

He is Absolute Love - which only God has: 1 Jn 3:16; Eph 5:2

And God is love: Ps 69:16; Isa 30:18; 63:7; Jer 9:24; Jer 31:3; 33:11; Lam 3:22

He is immutable, and only God can be immutable: Heb 13:8

And God is immutable: 1 Sam 15:29; Mal 3:6; Heb 1:12, 6:17; Jas 1:17

He is omniscient: Jn 1:47-48; 2:24-25

And God is omniscient: Ps 139

He is omnipresent: Jn 1:48-50; Mt 18:20; 28:20.

And God is omnipresent: Ps 139;

He is omnipotent: Mt 24:30; Heb 1:3; Phil 3:21; Rev 1:8; Col 1:17 And God is omnipotent: Ps 29, 76, 90, 93:4

He receives worship: Jn 9:38: 20:28-29:

[Jn 20:28]:

(v. 28) "Thomas answered and said to Him, 'My Lord and my God!'

(v. 29) "Jesus said to him, 'Because you have seen Me, have you believed; blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed."

[Note: Up to this point in Scripture our Lord had not been referred to as Thomas spoke of Him:

"ho ...Kurios mou kai .ho .Theos mou "

"The Lord ...my ...and the God... my."

Notice that Thomas could not be just exclaiming 'my God!' because of the grammatical construction indicated above which does not indicate such an exclamation especially because of the word "kai" = "and" which separates the two statements:

"ho ...Kurios mou

"The Lord ...my.....

"kai"

"and"

"ho .Theos mou "

"the God ..my"

Thomas is expressing his allegiance to Jesus Christ by saying that Jesus is His Lord and His God. In addition to not being grammatically correct for this verse, the exclamatory of 'Oh My God' at the realization that Jesus appeared before him in a resurrected body would not be characteristic of Thomas considering that such an expression was not used without the possibility of being accused of taking God's name in vain.

In Psalm 97:6-7, (cp Heb 1:6), God commands all the angels to worship Jesus Christ:

[Ps 97:5-7]:

(v. 5) "The mountains melted like wax at the presence of the Lord,

At the presence of the Lord of the whole earth.

[This verse speaks of Jesus Christ at His Second Coming, cp Micah 1:3-4]

(v. 6) The heavens declare His [Christ's] righteousness, And all the peoples have seen His glory.

(v. 7) Let all those be ashamed who serve graven images, Who boast themselves of idols;

Worship Him, all you gods.

["Worship Him" = God says to the angels to worship Jesus Christ. The word "gods" here refers to the angels, cp Heb 1:6 and Ex 20:3-5a below]

[Heb 1:6]:

"And when He [God] again brings the first-born [Jesus Christ] into the world, He says,

'And let all the angels of God worship"

SUMMARY PT #7 ON THE TRINITY(cont)

Exclusive attributes and prerogatives of God which are true of Jesus Christ, (cont.)

So, since only God is to be worshipped. And since Christ is worshipped. Then Jesus Christ must be God:

[Ex 20:3-5a]:

(v. 3) "You shall have no other gods before Me.

(v. 4) You shall not make for yourself an idol, or any likeness of what is in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the water under the earth.

(v. 5a) You shall not worship them or serve them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children, on the third and the fourth generations of those who hate Me," [cp Rev 22:9]

He is able to forgive sins: Mk 2:8-12

And God is able to forgive sins: Ps 25:11, 79:9

He is able to bestow eternal rewards: Rev 22:12

And God is the One Who rewards: Ps 58:11; Heb 11:6; Eph 6:7-8

He will be the One Who executes judgment: Jn 5:22, 27; Acts 17:31

And God is the judge of the universe: Gen 18:25, Ps 7:11, 9:7, 50, 58:11

He is the Provider of resurrection:

Jn 10:17-18; 5:28-29; 11:25; 1 Cor 15:21

And God is the One Who resurrects: 1 Cor 15:12-22

He is the object of faith for salvation:

Jn 1:12; 3:16; 1 Jn 5:9-13

And God is that object of faith: Gen 15:5-6; Ro 4:3; Heb 11:1-16

He is God manifest in the flesh: 1Tim 3:16And God is that Man in the flesh as promised through the prophet Isaiah: Isa 9:6-7

SUMMARY POINT #8 ON THE TRINITY

Jesus Christ is in an intimate communion which is on an equal level with God the Father

[Jn 1:1-2 cont.]:

(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning."

The Greek word which is rendered "with" in both verses ("pros") means an intimate communion on an equal level with God. This concept is repeated and expanded in verse 18 such that only God could have such an intimate relationship with Himself as the verse indicates:

[Jn 1:18 N.A.S.]:

"No man has seen God at any time; the One and Only God, [referring to Jesus Christ] Who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained [i.e., declared] Him. [i.e., declared Who God is to the world by Who He, Jesus, is]"

"Who is in the bosom of the Father" = This is stating that Jesus Christ continuously was in eternity past, before all creation, (v. 1a), on the most intimate level with God the Father. So the meaning of the preposition "with" = "pros" is one of communion on an intimate and equal level.

[Compare 1 Jn 1:2, 2:1]:

[1 Jn 1:2, 2:1]:

(v. 1:2) "and the life [Jesus Christ, v. 1] was manifested, and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with ["pros"] the Father and was manifested to us -

(v. 2:1) "My little children, I am writing these things to you that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with ["pros"] the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:"

Dr Leon Morris states, ('The Gospel According to John, Wiliam B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., Grand Rapids, Mi, 1971, p. 75-76):

''' "The Word was with God" is probably as good a translation as we can manage for a difficult Greek expression.....

...[Ftnote #14]...Dods maintains that the preposition "implies not merely existence alongside of but personal intercourse. It means more than'meta' = 'with' or 'para' = 'with', 'by', 'near', 'among', and is regularly employed in expressing the presence of one person with another"....According to A. T. Robertson, "the literal idea comes out well, 'face to face with God...[it]...expresses nearness combined with the sense of movement towards God, and so indicates an active relationship." [with a sense of intimacy]

The same word "with" = "pros" is used in Mk 6:3 to describe what the Pharisees maintained was Jesus' equal status with His brothers and sisters relative to being finite, having no supernatural powers or special wisdom. So "pros" is used to establish the idea of communion on an equal level:

[Mk 6:2-3]:

(v. 2) When the Sabbath came He [Jesus] began to teach in the synagogue, and many who heard Him were amazed. 'Where did this man get these things?' they asked. 'What's this wisdom that has been given Him, that He even does miracles?

(v. 3) Isn't this the carpenter? Isn't this Mary's son and the brother of James, Joseph and Simon? Aren't His sisters here with us?' And they took offense at Him."

Scripture constantly affirms that God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit are equal with respect to Their attributes, (infinite qualities). They are one God. If our Lord Jesus Christ were merely a created being then He could NOT be equal with God the Father with respect to any of His attributes...thus refuting scores of Bible verses that do claim Christ's equality with God the Father. For example:

[Col 2:9]:

"For in Him [Christ] all the fullness of the Godhead dwells in bodily form..."

hoti ..en autO katoikei pan to ..plErOma tEs ....theotEtos .sOmatikOs

"For in Him ..dwells ...all ..the fullness ....of the Godhead .bodily

[This description of our Lord can only apply if Jesus Christ is God Himself, i.e., if "all the fullness of the Godhead dwells in bodily form']

[Isa 9:6]:

"For to us a Child is born,

to us a Son is given,

and the government will be on His shoulders.

And He will be called

Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."

Not only is Jesus Christ called "Mighty God" but objectors often skip the rest of the verse which calls Him "Everlasting Father" a term reserved for God Almighty alone.

[Heb 1:3]:

"The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representative of His being."

[Phil 2:6]:

"[Christ Jesus]: Who being in very nature God.."

Our Lord, being a remarkably knowledgeable Jewish Man, Who knew precisely what He was saying the many times He called God His Father, and so did the Jews. Our Lord was claiming diety Himself:

[Jn 5:18]:

"For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."

"equal" = "ison" = 'equal in quality as in quantity, to claim for one's self the Nature, rank, authority, which belong to God,' (Thayer's Greek Lexi Lexicon, p. 307). Incidentally, Dr. Thayer is a Unitarian who denies the diety of Christ, but he was honest enough to give the true meaning of Biblical terms even when they contradict what he believes.

SUMMARY PT #9 ON THE TRINITY:

OLD AND NEW TESTAMENT PARALLEL PASSAGES POINT TO THE DIETY OF JESUS CHRIST

Below is a list of Old Testament verses which refer to God as Jehovah, the most sacred and powerful name for God Almighty. Under each Jehovah verse is a New Testament verse which lays claim that our Lord Jesus Christ is Jehovah God Himself:

Gen 1:1 - Only God is Creator.

Col 1:16 - Christ is Creator.

Ps 27:1 - Only Jehovah is Light

Jn 8:12 & I Jn 1:5 - Christ is Light.

Ps 27:1; Isa 43:11 - Only Jehovah is salvation. Jn 14:6; Titus 3:5-6 - Christ is salvation.

Jer 23:5-6 - Only Jehovah is Righteousness.

I Cor 1:30 - Christ is Righteousness.

Isa 7:14 - A Son born of a virgin, called Immanuel which means "Jehovah God with us."

Mt 1:21-23 - Christ is that Immanuel "which is to say that He is Jehovah God with us."

Joel 2:32 - Whoever calls on the name of Jehovah God will be saved.

Acts 2:21-39, 16:30-31 & I Cor 1:2 & Ro 10:13 - Whoever calls on the name of Christ will be saved.

Isa 48:12-16 - Jehovah God is the First & the Last.

Rev 22:13 - Christ is the First & the Last.

Isa 40:3 & Mal 3:1 - Clear the way for Jehovah God.

Jn 1:22-30 - Clear the way for Jesus Christ.

Isa 6:1-5 - Isaiah sees the glory of Jehovah God

Jn 12:34-41 - Isaiah had seen the glory of Christ Who is Jehovah God.

Isa 43:10-11 - There is only one God Who is our one and only Savior. There is no other Savior beside God.

Acts 13:23; Titus 3:5-6; 2 Pet 1:1,11; Jn 4:42; Lk 2:11- The Lord Jesus Christ is that Savior Who therefore is God.

Ex 3:2-4 - God is referred to as Jehovah God

Rev 1:7-8 - Jesus Christ is referred to as Jehovah God"

(v. 7) '''Look, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the peoples of the earth will mourn because of Him. So shall it be! Amen.

(v. 8) "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, [Lit. Jehovah God] "Who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty." '''

SUMMARY POINT #10 ON THE TRINITY

The Messiah is God

The Messiah is Christ

The Messiah is described in Scripture as One Person Who is both God and Perfect Man at the same time!

In Hebrew, The Messiah in English letters looks like this: "HaMaschioch". It is pronounced: Ha-me-shee-ah.

Our Lord's name which we say is "Jesus" in English looks like this in the Hebrew transliterated into English letters: "Jehoshua." It is pronounced: "Ye - shoo - ah"

HEBREW

Jehoshua = Ye-shoo-ah = Jesus

HaMaschioch = Ha-Me-shee-ah = The Messiah

GREEK

Iesous = Jesus

Christos = Christ

Jesus (Ye-shoo-ah) refers to God the Son's name in His First Coming to die for sins.

It means "JEHOVAH IS SALVATION."

The Christ (Ha-me-sh e-ah) refers to God the Son's name in His Second Coming to reign as King of kings and Lord of lords.

THE CHRIST means THE MESSIAH or THE ANOINTED ONE which is what the word Christos, (Christ) means in the Greek. To anoint is to gift or joyously bestow. Christ is the One Who is gifted (joyously bestowed) with the Lordship of heaven and earth - of all creation - by the Father.

Cp Ps 2:1-12, 45:6-7; 8:1-9.

At the very beginning of God's Word we have God's promise of a Messiah Who will be born of a woman and defeat Satan:

[Gen 3:15]:

"And I will put enmity between you and the woman and between your seed and her Seed; He shall bruise and tread your head under foot, and you will lie in wait and bruise His heel.".

"And I [Jehovah God the Son] will put enmity [bitter hostility] between you [Satan] and the woman and between your seed [unsaved mankind] and her Seed [Christ the Messiah]. He shall bruise and tread your head under foot [conquer and destroy Satan]

and you [Satan] will lie in wait and bruise His heel [wound Him but not fatally]"

So there will be a battle to final destruction between the power behind the serpent who is the devil, Satan (Rev 12:9-11) with his forces (the demons and unsaved mankind - the seed of Satan who are his children Jn 8:42-44). There will be a battle between Satan's forces

AND

the "Seed of the woman" is Christ the Messiah. His own are believers, His children, (Gal 4:28-29).

The "Seed of the woman" Who is Christ the Messiah and His own who are believers, His children.

"Seed of the woman" - An uncommon expression for the author of Genesis (Moses) to use in that a human son is referred to all of the time as the seed of the man - of the human father. For the human father - the male - has the seed. But our Lord, in His humanity is unique in that He was born of the seed of the woman - a miraculous virgin birth which added humanity to His diety without inheriting a sin nature from a human father. It is through the seed of the man that one inherits the sin nature from Adam

(Ro 5:12). Our Lord Jesus Christ's human nature was conceived by the seed of God the Holy Spirit and is therefore without a sin nature - without the capacity to sin:

[Mt 1:18]:

"This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit."

And our Lord became flesh in order to be the Savior of the world:

[Mt 1:20-21]:

"But after he [Joseph] had considered this

[divorcing Mary because she was pregnant],

an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, 'Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a Son, and you are to give Him the name Jesus because He will save His people from their sins.'"

There are some who say that Christ must have had a sin nature to be fully like man. But a sin nature is not normal for man to have. It is an aberration, an abnormality. Adam did not have a sin nature until he rebelled against God. If the first Adam was created without a sin nature (Gen 1:31), surely Christ Who is called the second Adam can be without a sin nature yet fully experience the human condition. Scripture testifies to this:

[Heb 4:15]:

"For we do not have a High Priest

[Jesus the Son of God, Heb 4:14]

Who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses,

but we have One Who has been tempted in every way, just as we are - yet was without sin."

[Heb 7:25-26]:

(v. 25) "Therefore He [Christ] is able to save completely those who come to God through Him, because He always lives to intercede for them.

(v. 26) Such a High Priest meets our need-One Who is holy, blameless, pure, set apart from sinners, exalted above the heavens."

Such holiness, blamelessness and purity in our Lord could not exist in our Lord Himself if He possessed a sin nature.

[1 Jn 3:5]:

"But you know that He [Christ] appeared so that He might take away our sins. And in Him is no sin."

In Christ is no sin - no acts of sin - no capability to sin - no sin nature!! Consider Adam when he had no sin nature - yet he sinned and contaminated his very nature. Consider our Lord Jesus Christ in His humanity Who has no sin nature. He did not sin, even under the greatest of continual temptations (Mt 4:1-11). Our Lord was tempted far beyond the breaking point of any other man. One may therefore have full and complete confidence in our great High Priest's capabilty to save us and keep us saved. For that matter, one may have confidence that our Lord knows fully the tribulations and temptations that each of us goes through in our lives. Finally, the Apostle Paul speaks of our Lord's perfect righteousness which God has freely provided for us believers as a gift at the moment when we expressed our faith in Him:

[2 Cor 5:21]:

"God made Him [Christ] Who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God."

Our human righteousness is not sufficient to be acceptable to God for it is contaminated with our sin nature. But the absolutely perfect righteousness of God Himself becomes our possession upon exercising our faith in Christ as Savior, (Ro 3:21-22).

This verse in 2 Corinthians above indicates that Christ "had no sin" - sin singular, (as opposed to sins plural). This indicates NOT ONLY that He did not have any sins (plural) in His life (and He did not), but that He had no sin tendancy, no sin nature, no sin (singular):

"God made Him Who had no sin........." (hamartian = sin = sin nature)

"to be sin for us............."

God the Father appointed God the Son, Jesus Christ, Who had no sins or sin nature to take upon Himself the responsibility for all of our sins and sin natures - our lack of perfect righteousness, i.e. to make provision for us to receive a new perfect nature which is acceptable nature to God and to pay the penalty for our sins which are an expression of that sin nature.

[2 Cor 5:21 cont]:

"God made Him [Christ] Who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God."

This verse also says that Christ has the perfect righteousness of God, (because He is God and only God is the possessor and grantor of perfect righteousness, cp Jer 23:5-6 with 1 Cor 1:30); and in Christ we receive that righteousness:

"so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God." = So that in Him, i.e. those who trust in Him, (Ro 3:21-22a), will receive the gift of perfect righteousness from Him which only He has, (because He is God) and which is the only way a person can enter eternal life with God in heaven. (Jn 14:6).

Not only must a person's sins be paid for

- (and everyone's sins who ever lived were paid for by what Jesus accomplished on the cross, I Jn 2:2) -

but that person must be perfectly righteous in his nature in order to enter into eternal life with God in heaven. This perfect righteousness only comes as a free gift by faith alone in Christ alone:

[2 Pet 1:1]:

"To those [believers] who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours."

[1 Cor 1:30]:

"It is because of Him [God, vv.27-29] that you are in Christ Jesus, Who has become for us [believers] wisdom from God - that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption."

[Ro 3:21-22a]:

"But now a righteousness from God apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe."

[Eph 2:8-9]:

(v. 8) "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;

(v. 9) not as a result of works, that no one should boast."

Unbelievers DO have their sins paid for, (1 Jn 2:2); but by their rejection of faith alone in Christ alone they refuse to change their mind about their personal contamination with their sin nature. They are therefore not worthy, unchanged as they are, to enter through the gates of heaven without ever having expressed their faith alone in Christ alone as Personal Savior. An individual who is not provided with God's gift of perfect righteousness retains his sin contaminated nature, i.e., his moral guilt, before a Holy God, inevitably barring his own entrance into heaven. In conclusion, our Lord, the Messiah Jesus Christ, being in very nature God, (Phil 2:6), is perfectly righteous and cannot sin. By faith we are appointed to receive His perfect righteousness as a free gift.

Incidentally, we do not have our sin natures immediately extricated at the point of our salvation and replaced with God's absolute righteousness........................

A believer continues to struggle with his old sin nature until it is time for him to be with the Lord in heaven, (Ro 7:14-25), at which time he will then receive his gift of perfect righteousness, (1 Cor 15:51-57). Therefore, in order for our Lord to have and impart His perfect righteousness to believers, He could not have a sin nature even in His humanity.

SUMMARY PT. #10 ON THE TRINITY, (cont.)

The Messiah is God

The Messiah is Christ

Old Testament Scripture spoke in ancient times of a Messiah Savior Who would be born as a Child and be God and Man at the same time. The prophet Isaiah verfies that a Messiah-Savior would be born of Israel Who is "Mighty God" and "Everlasting Father" Who could only then be God Himself as there are no other Gods, (Isa 43:10-11; 44:6):

[Isa 9:6-7]:

(v. 6) "For a child will be born to us, [Israel, (vv. 1-5)] a Son will be given to us;

And the government will rest on His shoulders;

And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,

Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."

(v. 7) There will be no end to the increase of His government or of peace,

On the throne of David and over His kingdom,

To establish it and to uphold it with justice and righteousness

From then on and forevermore.

The zeal of the Lord of hosts will accomplish this."

And our Lord became a Perfect Man in order to fulfill the prophecy of His bringing salvation and justice to the world:

[Isa 42:1-4]:

[Note: God the Father is speaking (v. 5)]:

(v. 1) "Behold, My Servant, [Jesus Christ] Whom I uphold;

My Chosen One in Whom My soul delights.

I have put My Spirit [God the Holy Spirit] upon Him;

He will bring forth justice to the nations.

(v. 2) He will not cry out or raise His voice,

Nor make His voice heard in the street.

(v. 3) A bruised reed He will not break,

And a dimly burning wick He will not extinguish;

He will faithfully bring forth justice.

(v. 4) He will not be disheartened or crushed,

Until He has established justice in the earth;

And the coastlands will wait expectantly for His law."

The prophet Isaiah also spoke in ancient times of a Savior Who would suffer in order to heal the world of its spiritual sickness - SIN - bearing upon Himself the sins of the whole world:

[Isa 53:5]:

"But He was pierced for our transgressions,

He was crushed for our iniquities;

the punishment that brought us peace was upon Him,

and by His wounds we are healed [of our sin natures]"

Our Lord suffered on the cross for the sins of the whole world. God the Father crushed Him for all the sins committed by all men throughout history (Cp. Isa 53:4, 10-12 & I Jn 2:2). The eternal punishment for our sins was brought upon Jesus Christ instead

of all men which provided for the only avenue for a man's peace with God, (Cp. Jn 14:6). So by the wounds which Christ received on the cross ALL OF MANKIND is provided with the atonement, (payment of the penalty) for all sins. Provision is also made by what the Savior did on the cross for the healing of our sin natures which produced all those iniquities - all of our sins. All of our sins are paid for regardless of our mental attitude but our spiritual sickness - our sin nature - will only be healed should we decide to receive that spiritual healing by faith alone in Christ alone as our Savior - our Spiritual Healer, (cp. Acts 10:43). An individual cannot enter heaven without being spiritually healed of his sin nature even though the penalty for his sins is paid for.

Believers in their lifetime on earth, however, do not receive a healed spiritual condition - they continue to struggle with their sin natures, (Ro 7:14-25). They will receive the gift of a nature of perfect righteousness when they go to be with the Lord in heaven, (1 Cor 15:51-57).

Continuing in Isaiah chapter 53:

[Isa 53:5-6 cont.]:

(v. 5) "But He was pierced for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon Him, and by His wounds we are healed.

(v. 6) "We all, like sheep, have gone astray,

each of us has turned to his own way;

and the Lord has laid on Him the iniquity of us all."

In verse 6 above, the prophet Isaiah repeats what he just said in verse 5: how our Lord will die for the sins of the whole world. Then he adds that all men have turned to their own sinful ways, (cp Ro chapters 1-3). And God the Father has laid on God the Son the penalty for such iniquity - for the sins of all mankind throughout history. So this Child, the Messiah, the Lord Jesus Christ, was to be born of a virgin and He would be called by a name that would signify that God is with us:

[Isa 7:14]:

"Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a Son, and will call Him Immanuel."

"Immanuel" in Hebrew is not referred to in this passage as a specific name by which our Lord is to be called - other passages determine His specific name as Jesus, (Mt 1:21). Rather, the word "Immanuel" is a characterization which is to describe the nature of our Lord and it means "God with us":

[Mt 1:23b]:

"'...and they will call Him Immanuel'" - which means 'God with us'"

And the name in Hebrew by which our Lord is to be called, Jehoshua, (Jesus) means "Jehovah God is salvation." Such a name fulfills the above prophecy (Isa 7:14, Mt 1:23) for it is a name which characterizes that our Lord truly is 'God with us' Jesus was a

descendant of King David thus authenticating Who He was by fulfilling the prophecy about the Messiah:

[Ps 89:35-36]:

"Once for all I have sworn by My

holiness -

and I will not lie to David -

that his line will continue forever

and his throne endure before Me like the sun;

it will be established forever like the moon,

the faithful witness in the sky."

[Jer 23:5-6]:

" 'The days are coming,' declares the Lord, 'when I will raise up to David a righteous branch, [descendant] a King Who will reign wisely and do what is just and right in the land.

In His days Judah will be saved

and Israel will live in safety.

This is the name by which He will be called: The Lord Our Righteousness' "

And our Lord's birth into humanity is in that family line of David:

[Mt 1:11, 16-17]:

(v.1): "A record of the genealogy of Jesus Christ the Son of David, the son of Abraham:........................................................

(v.11): and Josiah the father of Jeconiah and his brothers at the time of the exile to Babylon.................................................

(v.16): and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom [feminine singular = of Mary] was born Jesus, Who is called Christ.

(v.17) Thus there were fourteen generations in all from Abraham to David. fourteen from David to the exile to Babylon, and fourteen from the exile to the Christ."

Joseph was our Lord's LEGAL but not biological father whose family line is traced through the royal line, (the line of actual rulers of Israel), of Solomon to David including king Jeconiah (v.11) and thereby our Lord received Joseph's legal and royal family descendency according to Scripture. However, in Jeremiah 22:24-30 God prohibits descendants from the wicked king Jeconiah to "....sit on the throne of David or rule anymore in Judah."

Incidentally, the word which is translated as "son" is not limited to an immediate descendant but often refers to a descendant of several or more generations - as it does here in Matthew's genealogy. Matthew does not include every single descendant in his genealogy, but rather he abbreviates and arranges it so that it highlights important points and is more easily memorized. In Luke's account of our Lord's genealogy, (Lk 3:23-38), our Lord's human family line is traced through Nathan to David which does not have the prohibition of rulership on it. It is also traced through the family line of Mary:

[Lk 3:23, 31]:

(v.23) "Now Jesus Himself was about thirty years old when He began His ministry. He was the Son, so it was thought, of Joseph, the son of Heli, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi.............................

(v.31): "the son of Melea, the son of Menna, the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan, the son of David,

C.I. Scofield states, (Oxford NIV Scofield Study Bible, footnote #1 p. 1054):

"....since every man has two genealogies - one through his father and another through his mother - so Matthew presents Joseph's genealogy [the Lord's foster or legal father, not His actual father] whereas Luke presents Mary's genealogy. This view is supported by linguistic and historical evidence and is held by many students of the Bible. In addition, appeal may be made to Numbers 27:1-11 and 36:1-12 to give Scriptural precedent for the substitution of Joseph's name in Lk 3:23. At the same time it avoids the judgment spoken of in Jer 22:28-30."

Jer 22:28-30 prohibits a descendant of Jeconiah's from ruling Israel. Hebrew genealogies traditionally are constructed from the male side. Although Matthew's genealogy does mention women, notice that the line of the genealogy is strictly through the male names. So our Lord's descendancy as traced through His human mother would first state that He is Son of Joseph since Joseph was Mary's husband - the male. Then the genealogy would properly move to Mary's side of the family and begin with the male of the next generation related to our Lord through Mary:

[Lk 3:23-24]:

(v. 23) "And when He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being supposedly the son of Joseph, the son of Heli,

(v. 24) the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son, of Melchi, the son of Jannai, the son of [another] Joseph,"

["supposedly the son of Joseph" = "enomizeto" = presumably, supposedly. This word was inserted here to reflect the false understanding of most who thought that Joseph was the human father of Jesus Christ by natural birth. "son" = son = descendant

"son of Heli" (on Mary's side who is) "the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Melki, the son of Jannai, the son of (another) Joseph....(etc)].

Hundreds of years beforehand, the prophet Daniel prophesies of such an "anointed Ruler" - a Messiah - a Man Who is executed at the precise time when Christ was crucified:

*********************************************

EXCERPT FROM STUDY ON DANIEL CHAPTER 9

I cont.) [Dan 9:24 cont.]:

"Seventy 'sevens' are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the most holy."

B) GOD DECREED A 490 YEAR PERIOD FOR ISRAEL & JERUSALEM IN WHICH THERE WILL BE A FINISH OF TRANSGRESSION, AN END TO SIN, ATONEMENT FOR WICKEDNESS, BRINGING IN OF EVERLASTING RIGHTEOUSNESS, FULFILLMENT OF ALL VISIONS & PROPHECIES & ANOINTING OF JESUS CHRIST AS KING OF KINGS

1) A FINISH TO TRANSGRESSION

A "finish" to "transgression" = a finish to, i.e., a solution to the problem of Israel's willful disobedience to the statutes of the Law will be brought to an end when our Lord will pay for the sins of the whole world and Israel will accept her Messiah and finally resolve the problem of her transgression.

2) AN END OF SIN

"an end of sin" = the Hebrew word "hatam" = "an end of" = a completion of in the sense of ending. The context of this passage in Daniel combined with the examination of other passages which are about the same doctrine, (Ref. Dt 32:34; Job 14:17), indicate that the phrase "an end of sin" means a sealing up of; i.e., a final ending of the problem of unpunished sin with the satisfactory amount of punishment, sin being anything outside of the Righteousness of God.

3) ATONEMENT FOR WICKEDNESS

Atonement "for wickedness" = payment for sins. This specifically refers to our Lord's once for all time atonement for the sins of the whole world, (Ro 3:21; I Jn 2:2; Hebrews chapter 9).

4) A BRINGING IN OF EVERLASTING RIGHTEOUSNESS

a bringing in of "everlasting righteousness" =

"to bring in" - in the verb form in this passage "to bring in" = to cause to come in. This refers to the causing to come in by God of a period of rule of everlasting righteousness. This can only refer to that period of time in history beginning with the millennium. There is no other period in history which brings in a period of rule of everlasting rightouesness. This rule will continue into eternity future, hence it is described as everlasting.

5) A SEALING UP, I.E., FULFILLMENT OF VISIONS AND PROPHECIES

"a sealing up" = a fulfilling, finally, of "vision and prophecy" in Scripture. All visions and prophecies in Scripture will be sealed, i.e. fulfilled and completed and thereby sealed up as completed, no longer applicable for fulfillment.

6) AN ANOINTING OF THE MOST HOLY ONE

An anointing of = the enthronement of "the Most Holy", the Messiah, the Lord Jesus Christ as King of kings and Lord of Lords. This will occur beginning at the period of the millennium.

II) [Dan 9:25-26]:

(v. 25) " 'Know and understand this: From the issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One, the Ruler, comes, there will be seven 'sevens,' and sixty-two 'sevens'. It [Jerusalem] will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble.

(v. 26) After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One [Jesus Christ] will be cut off [i.e., excecuted as a criminal] but not for Himself. [Then] The people of the ruler [the Antichrist] who will come will destroy the city [of Jerusalem] and the sanctuary [of the temple]. The end [of human history as we know it] will come like a flood. War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed."

A) ARTAXERXES LONGIMANUS, KING OF BABYLON, ISSUED A DECREE IN 445 B.C. TO REBUILD JERUSALEM

"From the issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem" =

Artxerxes Longimanus, king of Babylon, issued a decree [Heb = "dabar" = command, decree, (cf. Est 1:19)] to permit Nehemiah to rebuild the walls around Jerusalem. King Artaxerses did this on the Jewish calendar month and day of Nisan 1, 445 B.C.,(Mar 14); (cp Nehemiah 2:1-8).

1) [Neh 2:1-8]:

(v. 1) "In the month of Nisan in the twentieth year of King Artaxerxes, when wine was brought for him, I [Nehemiah] took the wine and gave it to the king. I had not been sad in his presence before;

(v. 2) so the king asked me, 'Why does your face look so sad when you are not ill? This can be nothing but sadness of heart.' I was very much afraid,

(v. 3) but I said to the king, 'May the king live forever! Why should my face not look sad when the city where my fathers are buried lies in ruins, and its gates have been destroyed by fire?'

(v. 4) The king said to me, 'What is it you want?' Then I prayed to the God of heaven,

(v. 5) and I answerd the king, 'If it pleases the king and if your servant has found favor in his sight, let him send me to the city in Judah where my fathers are buried so that I can rebuild it.'

(v. 6) Then the king, with the queen sitting beside him, asked me, 'How long will your journey take, and when will you get back?' It pleased the king to send me; so I set a time.

(v. 7) I also said to him, 'If it pleases the king, may I have letters to the governors of Trans-Euphrates, so that they will provide me safe-conduct until I arrive in Judah?

(v. 8) And may I have a letter to Asaph, keeper of the king's forest, so he will give me timber to make beams for the gates of the citadel by the temple and for the city wall and for the residence I will occupy?' And because the gracious hand of my God was upon me, the king granted my requests."

So this 490 year period which leads into the millennial rule of the Kingdom of God will begin at the time when king Artxerxes issues a decree to rebuild Jerusalem.

The rest of this passage speaks of letters of safe passage, military escort protection and authorizations to secure materials and safe conduct in order to reconstruct Jerusalem. The edict given by Artxerses needs to be pinpointed in history in order to test the accuracy of Daniel's prophecy. Artxerses Longimanus, historians have established, began his first year of rule in 464 B.C.. His 20th year of reign then being 445 B.C. Objectors point away from Artxerses Longimanus to other rulers of Medo-Persia in order to avoid the astoningly miraculous accuracy of Daniel's prophecy. Many objectors point to another Medo-Persian ruler, Cyrus, who issued an edict to rebuild the temple at Jerusalem. But notice that the edict was only to bebuild the temple, not the whole city:

[Ezra 1:2]:

"This is what Cyrus king of Persia says: 'The Lord, the God of heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the earth and He has appointed me to build a temple for Him at Jerusalem in Judah."

Still other objectors to setting the commencement date of this prophecy in Dan 9 as 445 B.C. point to another date, 457 B.C. when Artaxerxes, king of Persia issued a decree to Ezra authorizing him to reinstitute the Temple services, appoint judges and magistrates, and teach the Law. But notice that a rebuilding of Jerusalem was not specifically stipulated. [Compare Ezra 7:11-26].

Furthermore, when carefully considered, the 445 B.C. propecy date works out perfectly to that first Palm Sunday when our Lord first presented Himself as Messiah/King to Israel riding on a foal of a donkey; after which, as the prophecy goes, He was indeed rejected thereupon "cut-off", i.e., crucified. The date of that Sunday was Nissan 10 [Apr 6] A.D. 32.

[Sir Robert Anderson states, op. cit. pp. 121-122]:

"The date of Artaxerses' reign can be definitely ascertained...by the united voice of secular historians and chronologers. .....The Persian edict which restored the autonomy of Judah was issued in the Jewish month of Nisan. It may in fact have been dated the 1st of Nisan, but no other day being named, the prophetic period must be reckoned according to a practice common with the Jews, from the Jewish New Year's Day. 'On the 1st of Nisan is a new year for the computation of the reign of kings and for festivals' - Mishna, treatise. Rosh Hash. So when an event is dated as it was in Nehemiah 2:1, without a particular day of the month stated, then the first of the month was intended. The final proof of this is established when the precise number of days prophesied in Daniel points back to Nisan 1."

B) "THE ANOINTED ONE" = THE RULER, THE LORD JESUS CHRIST

"The Anointed One" = "Christos" (Greek) = The Messiah = The Lord Jesus Christ.

"Until the Anointed One [i.e., the Messiah] comes" = until our Lord appears in His First Coming to present Himself as Messiah, i.e., Ruler of the world. (He will be rejected as Messiah and crucified as Scripture prophesies).

C) THE DECREE TO REBUILD JERUSALEM IS TO BEGIN A TIMESPAN OF 483 YEARS UNTIL THE CRUCIFIXION OF OUR LORD

" 'Know and understand this: From the issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One, the Ruler, comes, there will be seven 'sevens,' and sixty-two 'sevens'. =

1) THE TIMESPAN FROM ARTAXERSES' DECREE TO THE FIRST 'PALM SUNDAY' PROPHESIED BY DANIEL IS 483 YEARS OR 173,880 DAYS

"there will be seven 'sevens'" = 7 x 7 = 49 years
"and sixty-two 'sevens' = 62 x 7 = 434 years
= 483 Jewish calendar years x 360 days/yr = 173,880 da
[Note: calculations are based on the 360da/yr calendar as evidence being used in Scripture via fulfilled prophecies using such a calendar year]

[Sir Robert Anderson also establishes the date of our Lord's crucifixion, op. cit., pp. 121-123]:

"The statement of St Luke is explicit and unequivocal, that our Lord's public ministry began in the fifteenth year of Tiberius Caesar. It is equally clear that it began shortly before the Passover. [cp Jn 2:13] The date of it can thus be fixed as between August A.D. 28 and April A.D. 29. The Passover of the crucifixion therefore was [3 yrs later according to the Gospels] in A.D. 32 when Christ was betrayed on the night of the Paschal [Passover] Supper, and put to death on the day of the Paschal Feast."

[Anderson goes on to say]:

"...In B.C. 445 the new moon by which the Passover was regulated [was] on the 13th of March at 7h. 9m. A.M....courtesy of the Astronmer Royal... Royal Observatory, Greenwich. [England] June 26th, 1877.... And accordingly the 1st Nisan may be assigned to the 14th March."

[Anderson, op. cit., p. 127-8]:

"In accordance with the Jewish custom, the Lord went up to Jerusalem upon the 8th Nisan, "six days before the Passover" [Jn 11:55; 12:1]. But as the 14th, on which the Paschal Supper was eaten, fell that year [32 A.D.] upon a Thursday, the 8th was the preceding Friday. He must have spent the Sabbath, therefore, at [nearby] Bethany...' [Jn 11:55; 12:1]:

(v. 11:55) "When it was almost time for the Jewish Passover, many went up from the country to Jerusalem for their ceremonial cleansing before the Passover.

(v. 12:1) Six days before the Passover, Jesus arrived at Bethany, where Lazarus lived, whom Jesus had raised from the dead."

[Anderson, cont.]:

"...and on the evening of the 9th, after the Sabbath had ended the Supper took place in Martha's [Lazarus'] house. Upon the following day, the 10th Nisan, He entered Jerusalem as recorded in the Gospels. The Julian date of that 10th Nisan was Sunday the 6th April, A.D. 32....

The intervening period was 476 years and 24 days (the days being reckoned inclusively, as required by the language of the prophecy, and in accordance with the Jewish practice).

476 modern x 365 = 173,740 da calendar yrs Add 14 days from and = 24 " including Mar 14 thru Apr 6 Add for leap years[see below*] 116 " Total days 'til Christ crucified 173,880da Compare to Daniel's prophecy: 69 weeks of years x 7yrs/wk = 483 Jewish cal yrs 483 x 360da/Jewish yr = 173,880da [*A total of 476 years divided by four (a leap year every four years) gives 119 additional days. But three days must be subtracted from 119 because centennial years are not leap years, though every 400th year is a leap year.

Calculation of days Daniel's prophecy
476 modern years x 365 = 173,740 da calendar yrs 69 weeks of years x 7yrs/wk = 483 Jewish cal yrs
Add 24 days from and including Mar 14 thru Apr 6 = 24 ' '
Add for leap years [see below***] = 116 ' '
Total days 'til Christ crucified = 173,880 da 483 x 360da/Jewish yr = 173,880da
[***A total of 476 years divided by four, (a leap year every four years), gives 119 additional days. But three days must be subtracted from 119 because centennial years are not leap years, though every 400th year is a leap year]

[Anderson goes on to say, op. cit., p. 128]:

"...in reckoning years from B.C. to A.D., one year must always be omitted; for it is obvious, ex. gr., that from B.C. 1 to A.D. I was not two years, but one year. B.C. 1 ought to be described as B.C. 0, and it is so reckoned by astronomers, who would describe the historical date B.C. 445, as 444....secondly, the Julian year is 11m. 10'46s., or about the 129th part of a day, longer than the mean solar year. The Julian calendar, therefore, contains three leap years too many in four centuries, an error which had amounted to eleven days in A.D. 1752, when our English calendar was corrected by declaring the 3rd September to be the 14th September, and by introducing the Gregorian reform which reckons three secular years out of four as common years; ex. gr., 1700, 1800 and 1900 are common years, and 2000 is a leap year."

2) JERUSALEM WILL BE REBUILT "IN TIMES OF TROUBLE"

"times of trouble" = Jerusalem was rebuilt back in ancient times by Nehemiah in "times of trouble". Compare Nehemiah chapters 2-6.

3) AT THE END OF 483 YEARS THE MESSIAH WILL PRESENT HIMSELF TO ISRAEL AND THEN HE WILL BE EXECUTED AS A CRIMINAL [CRUCIFIED] BUT NOT FOR HIMSELF, I.E., NOT FOR WHAT HE HIMSELF DID

"After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One [Jesus Christ] will be cut off but not for Himself." =

"karat" = cut off, executed as a criminal.

"but not for Himself" = but not for what he did himself =

The Messiah, the anointed one, was executed as a criminal, but not executed for something He did Himself. The Messiah Jesus Christ, (Christ = "Anointed One"), died for our sins, (1 Jn 2:2), not for anything He did Himself. At the end of the stipulated period of 483 years which began when Nehemiah received the decree from Artaxerxes to rebuild Jerusalem on Nissan 1, 445 B.C; our Lord presented Himself as Messiah exactly 173,880 days later when He rode into Jerusalem on a young donkey - Sunday, April 6, 32 A.D., (Mt 21:1-11). Shortly thereafter, the text says: "After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One will be cut off..." So after this presentation of Himself as Ruler on Palm Sunday April 6, 32 A.D., the Lord Jesus Christ, the "Anointed One" was crucified as a criminal as the prophecy in Daniel predicted.

III) [DAN 9:26-27]:

(v. 26) "After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One [Jesus Christ] will be cut off [i.e., excecuted as a criminal] but not for Himself. [Then] The people of the ruler [the Antichrist] who will come will destroy the city [of Jerusalem] and the sanctuary [of the temple]. The end [of the Mosaic Law Age] will come like a flood. War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed."

(v. 27) He [the Antichrist] will confirm a covenant with many [Israel] for one 'seven'. In the middle of the 'seven' he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on a wing of the temple, he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him."

A) DANIEL'S PROPHECY OF 490 YEARS JUMPS FROM OUR LORD'S CRUCIFIXION AT YEAR #483 SKIPPING ANY MENTION OF THIS PRESENT CHURCH AGE AND LEAPING 2,000 YEARS TO THE REMAINING 7 YEARS: A PERIOD OF THE ANTICHRIST AND GREAT TRIBULATION

"[Then] the people of the ruler [Antichrist, (v. 27)]" =

This next part of verse 26 (v. 26b), jumps hundreds of years in time from our Lord's crucifixion, (v. 26a), skipping over this present Church Age of 2,000 years as if it were an intercalation, i.e., an unrelated interruption, to the 7 year Tribulation period, the time of the Antichrist.

This remaining seven years when added to the previous total of 483 years = 490 years. This is the overall period of time indicated in Daniel 9:24, ("Seventy sevens" = 70 x 7 = 490 yrs). This 490 year period will pass including the intercalation of the 2,000 year Church Age and then there will be the end of human history as we know it. It will also be the end of the last seven years of the Mosaic Law Period climaxed by our Lord's Second Coming.

[Showers, cont.]:

"Gabriel said that the time from the beginning of the 70 weeks until the Messiah, the Prince, would be 69 weeks or 483 years (v. 25). Thus, 483 years after the beginning of the 70 weeks, the Messiah would be present in the world. The fact that this prophecy gave a very specific time when the Messiah would be present indicates that a significant event would happen with regard to the Messiah at the end of the first 69 weeks. What could that event be?

The fact that Gabriel referred to the Messiah as 'the Prince' implies that the event must be related significantly to the Messiah's being Israel's Prince or coming King. Zechariah 9:9 declared that Israel could identify its coming King by the fact that He would come to Jerusalem mounted on the foal of a donkey. In light of this, it would appear that the specific event that would happen at the end of the first 69 weeks or 483 years would be the Messiah's official presentation of Himself to Israel as its Prince or coming King by coming to Jerusalem mounted on the foal of a donkey.

Jesus Christ fulfilled this part of the 70-weeks prophecy when He officially presented Himself to Israel as its Messiah-Prince through His triumphal entry into Jerusalem on the foal of a donkey on Palm Sunday. Several things indicate that this was the specific event that ended the first 69 weeks or 483 years of the 70-weeks prophecy. First, some of the crowd on that Palm Sunday recognized the significance of Jesus' actions on that day, for they called Him 'King' (Lk 19:37-38).

Second, as Jesus approached Jerusalem on that day, He wept over the city and said, 'If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! But now they are hidden from thine eyes.' He warned Jerusalem that it would be destroyed by enemy forces 'because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation' (Lk 19:41-44). Jesus' language indicated that that particular day had been marked out by God as the time of Jerusalem's visitation by her Messiah-Prince - the day that could have brought lasting peace to that city if its people had accepted Jesus for Who He was. It also indicated that the people of Israel should have recognized that that particular day was the day when the Messiah would visit Jerusalem as Prince because several centuries earlier, in Daniel 9, God had revealed the exact time when the Messiah would present Himself as Prince to Israel.

Third, the 70-weeks prophecy foretold that the Messiah would be 'cut off' after the end of the first 69 weeks or 483 years (vv. 25-26). The word translated 'cut off' was used for the death penalty (Lev 7:20-21, 25, 27) and often referred to a violent death (1 Sam. 17:51; Obad. 9; Nah. 3:15). In this instance, it referred to the fact that the Messiah would be condemned to suffer the death penalty and thus would experience a violent death after the end of the first 69 weeks. It is a fact of history that Jesus was condemned to death and crucified several days (less than a week) after His triumphal entry into Jerusalem on Palm Sunday (Mk 11-15).

Fourth, the 70-weeks prophecy foretold that Jerusalem and the Temple would be destroyed after the end of the first 69 weeks (vv. 25-26). It is a fact of history that Jerusalem and the Temple were destroyed by the Romans in 70 A. D., some 30 to 40 years after Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem on Palm Sunday. As we noted earlier, on that Palm Sunday Jesus warned Jerusalem concerning that destruction by enemy forces as He approached the city.

Taken together, these four items indicate that the first 69 weeks of the 70-weeks prophecy ended on the day when Jesus made His triumphal entry into Jerusalem on the foal of a donkey and officially presented Himself to Israel as its Prince or coming King."

B) THE CHURCH DID NOT EXIST DURING ANY PART OF THE FIRST 69 WEEKS OR 483 YEARS OF THE 70 WEEKS

[Showers, cont.]:

"The church did not exist during any part of the first 69 weeks or 483 years of the 70 weeks. We have just observed that the first 69 weeks ended on the day of Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem... The church did not begin historically until the day of Pentecost (Acts 2), which took place nearly two months after the day of Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem []; therefore, the church did not begin historically until nearly two months after the end of the first 69 weeks of the 70-weeks prophecy.

We should note that God consistently kept the church out of all the first 69 weeks. Thus, it is evident that He intended the first 69 weeks of the 70-weeks prophecy to be His program specifically for Israel, but not for the church. This was consistent with the concept ... that Israel and the church are distinct entities. In addition, it was consistent with the second significant fact noted earlier concerning the 70-weeks prophecy - that God determined all 70 weeks specifically for Israel and Jerusalem, not for the church."

C) GOD TEMPORARILY INTERRUPTED HIS 70 WEEKS PROGRAM FOR ISRAEL AT THE END OF THE FIRST 69 WEEKS OR 483 YEARS WITH A GAP OF TIME THAT IS NOW APPROACHING 2,000 YEARS IN DURATION

[Showers, cont.]:

"God temporarily interrupted His 70-weeks program for Israel at the end of the first 69 weeks or 483 years with a gap of time that is now approaching 2,000 years in duration. Thus, the 70th week or last seven years of the 490 years involved in the prophecy did not follow immediately after the end of the first 69 weeks or 483 years. This indicates that the seven-year Tribulation period has not yet begun.

There are several evidences for this gap of time between the end of the first 69 weeks and the beginning of the 70th week. First, Daniel 9:27 teaches that abomination will come with desolation during the 70th week, but Jesus indicated that this abomination of desolation spoken of by Daniel will come shortly before His Second Coming immediately after the Great Tribulation (Mt 24:15-21, 29-31), meaning that the 70th week or last seven years of the prophecy must also come shortly before Jesus' Second Coming.

Second, Daniel 9 indicates that the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple by the Romans fits within the scope of the 70 weeks or 490 years of the prophecy. Thus, this destruction was to occur before the end of the 70th week or last period of seven years. In light of this and the fact that the first 69 weeks ended with Jesus' triumphal entry, if the last seven of the 490 years had followed immediately after the end of the first 69 weeks, Jerusalem and the Temple would have been destroyed just seven years after Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem in the early 30s A. D. It is a fact of history, however, that Jerusalem and the Temple were not destroyed until 70 A. D., several decades after Jesus' triumphal entry. Only if there were a gap of time between the end of the first 69 weeks and the beginning of the 70th week could this destruction have taken place so late and still be within the scope of the 70-weeks or 490-years prophecy.

Third, it is not unusual for biblical prophecies to contain gaps of time. For example, Isaiah 9:6 says, 'For unto us a child is born' (referring to the Messiah's first coming), and 'the government shall be upon His shoulder' (related the Messiah's Second Coming). Zechariah 9:9-10 states, 'behold, thy King commeth unto thee... lowly, and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt, the foal of an ass' (referring to the Messiah's triumphal entry during His first coming), and 'His dominion shall be from sea even to sea, and from the river even to the ends of the earth' (related to the Messiah's Second Coming)."

D) GOD STARTED THE CHURCH VERY SHORTLY AFTER HE INTERRUPTED HIS 70 WEEKS PROGRAM FOR ISRAEL AND JERUSALEM WITH A GAP OF TIME AT THE END OF THE FIRST 69 WEEKS

[Showers, cont.]:

"God started the church very shortly after He interrupted His 70-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem with a gap of time at the end of the first 69 weeks. God brought the church into existence just 57 days after the first 69 weeks ended with Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem."

E) GOD DOES NOT INTEND THE CHURCH TO BE PRESENT ON THE EARTH FOR ANY PART OF THE 70 WEEKS OR 490 YEARS HE HAS DETERMINED SPECIFICALLY FOR ISRAEL AND JERUSALEM

[Showers, cont.]:

"God does not intend the church to be present on the earth for any part of the 70 weeks or 490 years He has determined specifically for Israel and Jerusalem. He intends to keep His 70-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem and His program for the church separate and distinct from each other, just as Israel and the church are distinct entities.

This does not mean that God stopped working altogether with Israel and Jerusalem when He interrupted the 70-weeks program and started the church. Instead, it means that God temporarily stopped one specific program (the 70-weeks program) with Israel and Jerusalem while He works His program with the church in the world. There is a major difference between saying that God stopped working with Israel altogether and saying that He Temporarily stopped one specific program with that nation. God worked with Israel and Jerusalem in ways other than the 70-weeks program for many centuries before He started that specific program after Daniel's time. In like manner, during the present interruption of the 70-weeks program, He works with the nation and city in ways other than that program."

F) GOD INTENDS THE CHURCH TO BE PRESENT ON THE EARTH SPECIFICALLY DURING THE INTERRUPTING GAP OF TIME BETWEEN THE END OF THE FIRST 69 WEEKS OR 483 YEARS AND THE BEGINNING OF THE 70TH WEEK OR LAST SEVEN YEARS

[Showers, cont.]:

"God intends the church to be present on the earth specifically during the interrupting gap of time between the end of the first 69 weeks or483 years and the beginning of the 70th week or last seven years. If God intended to mix any part of His 70-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem with His program for the church, why didn't He start the church during the first 69 weeks of the 70-weeks program?"

G) GOD WILL REMOVE THE CHURCH FROM THE EARTH BEFORE THE 70TH WEEK BEGINS WITH THE RESUMPTION OF HIS 70-WEEKS PROGRAM FOR ISRAEL AND JERUSALEM

[Showers, cont.]:

"God will remove the church from the earth before the 70th week begins with the resumption of His 70-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem." []

H) CONCLUSION: THE CHURCH IS RAPTURED BEFORE THE 7 YEAR TRIBULATION PERIOD AS GOD RESUMES THE 70-WEEKS PROGRAM WITH ISRAEL IN THE 70TH WEEK

"A strong inference in favor of the Pretribulation Rapture of the church has been derived from this... study of the 70-weeks prophecy recorded in Daniel 9:24-27. The pretribulation view is the only view of the Rapture that has the church being removed from the earth before the 70th week begins (before God resumes His 70-weeks program with Israel and Jerusalem). Thus, it is the only view of the Rapture that keeps God's specific 70-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem separate and distinct from His program for the church.

All other views of the Rapture have the church going through at least part of the 70th week, meaning that all other views mix God's 7-weeks program for Israel and Jerusalem together with His program for the church."

I) IN THE MIDDLE OF THE SEVEN YEAR TRIBULATION (DANIEL'S 70TH WEEK), THE ANTICHRIST WILL BREAK HIS COVENANT WITH ISRAEL, DESECRATE THE TEMPLE WITH HIS IMAGE, DECLARE HIMSELF WORLD RULER & PERSECUTE ALL WHO WILL NOT WORSHIP HIM

"In the middle of the 'seven', he [the Antichrist] will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on a wing [of the temple] he will set up an abomination that causes desolation" =

1) [Compare 2 Thes 2:3-4]:

(v. 3) Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come [the coming of Christ and our being gathered to Him in the Rapture] until the "apostasia" [=standing away, i.e., the Rapture] occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.

(v. 4) He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshipped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God"

2) [Compare 13:1-8]:

(v. 1) "And the dragon stood on the shore of the sea. And I saw a beast coming out of the sea. He had ten horns and seven heads, with ten crowns on his horns, and on each head a blasphemous name.

(v. 2) The beast I saw resembled a leopard, but had feet like those of a bear and a mouth like that of a lion. The dragon gave the beast his power and his throne and great authority.

(v. 3) One of the heads of the beast seemed to have had a fatal wound, but the fatal wound had been healed. The whole world was astonished and followed the beast.

(v. 4) Men worshiped the dragon because he had given authority to the beast, and they also worshiped the beast and asked, 'Who is like the beast? Who can make war against him?'

(v. 5) The beast was given a mouth to utter proud words and blasphemies and to exercise his authority for forty-two months.

(v. 6) He opened his mouth to blaspheme God, and to slander his name and his dwelling place and those who live in heaven.

(v. 7) He was given power to make war against the saints and to conquer them. And he was given authority over every tribe, people, language and nation.

(v. 8) All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast--all whose names have not been written in the book of life belonging to the Lamb that was slain from the creation of the world."

So the Antichrist will be the main impetus behind the persecution of believers - both Jewish believers and Gentile believers. Notice that he puts himself up as god in the temple in Jerusalem to be worshipped and will not stand for anyone worshipping the one true God of the universe. He will rule over all men for a season and persecute all who will not worship him, Jews and born again believers alike.

J) THE END OF THE AGE OF THE GENTILES WHICH IS YET FUTURE WILL COME LIKE A FLOOD CLIMAXING WITH MAXIMUM WAR AND OUR LORD'S SECOND COMING

Note that the words "The end will come like a flood": in Daniel 9:26 and note the words "until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled." in Luke 21:24. These two phrases indicate that the end of the Gentile control of the world and the beginning of the kingdom - with Israel as the ruling nation and our Lord as Ruler - has not come yet. And it obviously did not come in 70 A.D. as some maintain. So what our Lord prophesied as happening to Jerusalem and the temple is yet future. At that future time, Jerusalem and the sanctuary will again be destroyed.

This time by the Antichrist.

Note also that Daniel prophesies that "The end" (when the Anointed One Jesus Christ returns) will come in 490 Jewish calendar years, (Dan 9:24). According to history only 483 years have passed from the month of Nisan, (March-April) 445 B.C. when Nehemiah was given a decree by Persian ruler Artaxerxes to rebuild the walls of Jerusalem to the 10th of Nisan, (April 6), A.D. 32, ("Palm Sunday"). April 6th, A.D. 32 was the time of Passover when the Anointed One, Jesus Christ officially offered Himself as and was rejected as the Messiah by Israel, (Mt 21:1-11). At that time He was "cut off", i.e. crucified, (the punishment a criminal would receive). This temporarily suspended the ticking away of this 490 year prophecy - interrupted by 2000 years of church age.

There are therefore seven years to go in this 490 year period before our Lord's Return. This is a 490 year period which is a period especially marked by the Mosaic Law rule of life including temple worship - all exclusively focused on the nation Israel - the church not at all being involved in this future 7 year period. This last seven years has been separated from the first 483 years by approximately 2000 years of Church age history. The 490 year clock will again start ticking as soon as the church age is completed at the Rapture.

[Dave Hunt commented on the prophecies of Daniel in the December 1992 edition of the periodical entitled "The Berean Call", (Bend, Oregon, pp. 1-2)]:

'''Through the writings of Jeremiah, Daniel learned that the Babylonian captivity would last 70 years (Dan 9:2). God had commanded that each seven years the Hebrew slaves should be set free, debtors forgiven and the land given a one-year sabbath of rest (Ex 21:2; Dt 15:1,2,12; Lv 25:2-4). For 490 years Israel had disobeyed this precept. As judgment, Jews became slaves of Babylon while their land rested the 70 years of sabbaths it had been denied. [490 = 7 x 70]

While confessing this sin, pondering and praying, Daniel was given the revelation that another period of 490 years (70 weeks of years) lay ahead for his people and for Jerusalem (9:24). At the end of that time all of Israel's sins would be purged, all prophecy fulfilled and ended, and the Messiah would be reigning on David's throne in Jerusalem. These 70 weeks of years (490) were to be counted "from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem" (v. 25). That crucial date is given to us in Scripture.

Nehemiah tells us that it was "in the month Nisan [March], in the twentieth year of Artaxerxes the king" ...[Nehemiah 2:1-8]... ...that he received the authorization to rebuild Jerusalem. When the day of the month was not given the first day was intended.

There were several Artaxerxes, but only one, Longimanus, who ruled more than 20 years - from 465-425 B.C. Thus we have the key date from which this incredible prophecy was to be calculated: Nisan 1, 445 B.C.

At the end of 69 of these "weeks" (7 x 69 = 483 years) "Messiah the Prince" would be made known to Israel (Dan 9:25) and then "be cut off [slain] but not for Himself" (v.26). Counting 483 years of 360 days each (the Hebrew and Babylonian calendar), a total of 173,880 days from Nisan 1, 445 B.C., brings us to Sunday, April 6, 32 A.D. on that very day, now celebrated as Palm Sunday, Jesus rode into Jerusalem on a young donkey and was hailed as Messiah the Prince! (Zechariah 9:9 was fulfilled at the same time.)...............

...........April 6, 32 A.D. was, on the Hebrew calendar, 10th of Nisan. On that day the passover lamb was taken from the flock and placed under observation for four days to make certain that it was "without blemish." During the same four days, Christ, Whom John the Baptist had hailed as the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world" (Jn 1:29), was likewise on display before Israel. On the 14th of Nisan, "the whole assembly of the congregation of Israel was to kill it [the passover lamb] in the evening [between 3:00 and 6:00 P.M.]" (Ex 12:3-6). It was during that precise time period that Jesus died on the cross!'''

**************END OF DAN CHAPTER 9 EXCERPT************