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THE IMMACULATE CONCEPTION OF MARY IS NOT BIBLICAL

I) ORIGINATION OF THE DOCTRINE WAS BY THE CATHOLIC CHURCH, NOT THE BIBLE

The Roman Catholic doctrine of Immaculate Conception teaches that Mary was perfectly sinless from conception and that she was unable to sin.

This dogma did not exist until it was proclaimed by Pope Pius IX in 1854. Then in 1950, Pope Pius XII declared that Mary completed her earthly life and "was assumed body and soul into heavenly glory." There is no biblical reference of this.

[ http://www.freechurch.org/oldrec/oldrecae.html ]:

'''This doctrine was defined by Pope Pius IX in 1854 and teaches that Mary herself, at the first instant of her conception, was preserved immaculate from the stain of original sin.

The thought here is that it was necessary that Mary be herself without sin if she was to be the Mother of the Saviour, and so she received the benefits of the Son's redeeming work in advance.

This teaching surfaced in the 4th century in the course of debate over the nature of Christ. The orthodox used the term 'Mother of God' (theotokos) to stress the deity of Jesus, particularly at the Council of Chalcedon in AD 451, but the term in less careful hands furthered the cult of Mary. For as the divinity of Jesus overshadowed his humanity so the need for a more human and sympathetic mediator was felt. Popular devotion placed Mary at the head of the saints in glory as the Queen of Heaven. She became a source and bestower of grace rather than the humble recipient of grace. The worship given her was called hyperdoulia, which was higher than that given to other saints (doulia) but less than that offered to God (latreia), distinctions not always appreciated by the common people. and which are not Biblical anyway.

The doctrine was not promulgated until 1854 since there were differences among church leaders as to whether Mary's sinlessness included freedom from original sin as well as actual sins. But there is not the slightest suggestion in Scripture for the doctrine of the immaculate conception of Mary, while the thrust of the entire Old and New Testaments is against it.'''

[Roman Catholicism Compared To Biblical Chrsitianity written and compiled by Barbara Wilhelm, 9/01 http://www.deceptioninthechurch.com/rcc.html ]:

'''RCC teaches that Mary is the sinless co-Redeemer. "Without a single sin to restrain her, she gave herself entirely to the person and work of her son; she did so in order to serve the mystery of redemption with Him...being obedient, she became the cause of salvation for herself and for the whole human race" (494) '''

II) IT IS NOT POSSIBLE THAT MARY WAS BORN SINLESS SINCE SHE WAS BORN OF A HUMAN FATHER DESCENDANT OF ADAM

A) OUR LORD WAS THE ONLY HUMAN WHO WAS SINLESS, NOT BORN OF A HUMAN FATHER

1) [Mt 1:18]:

"This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit."

2) [Compare Heb 4:15]:

"For we do not have a High Priest Who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have One Who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin."

III) THE SCRIPTURES TEACH THAT "ALL HAVE SINNED AND COME SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD" INCLUDING MARY

A) INTRODUCTION

[ Roman Catholicism Compared To Biblical Chrsitianity written and compiled by Barbara Wilhelm, 9/01 http://www.deceptioninthechurch.com/rcc.html ]:

'''Fewer than 90 Bible verses address the life of Mary. In them we find a wonderful humble servant of the Lord who rejoices in Him as her Savior.

Mary's ministry was simply the birth and nurturing of the child Jesus. Once He reached adulthood, she played no influential part in His earthly service. It's at the wedding feast of Cana, which began the public ministry of Jesus, that her last words are recorded. Fittingly, she tells the servants, ' Whatsoever He saith unto you, do it' (Jn 2:5) Mary then fades into the background.

Search the Scriptures as you will and you will find no leadership role for Mary among the Apostles. She taught no doctrine.

We never hear of the Apostles seeking her out for counsel. Other than the gospels, Mary is mentioned only once in the New Testament, where the Book of Acts tells us of her simple participation in a prayer meeting along with her sons.'''

B) THERE IS NO ONE GOOD BUT GOD ALONE

1) [Mt 19:16-17]:

(v. 16) '''Now behold, one came and said to Him, 'Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may have eternal life?'

(v. 17) "And He said to him, 'Why do you call Me good? No one is good but One, that is God. But if you want to enter life, keep the commandments" '''

Since no one is good, i.e., sinless, but God alone, and since Mary is not God, then Mary was not sinless.

2) [Compare Heb 4:15]:

"For we do not have a High Priest Who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have One Who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin."

Since our Lord is God the Son, thus He is sinless in His humanity.

B) MARY'S DECLARING THAT OUR LORD WAS HER SAVIOR SIGNIFIED THAT SHE NEEDED SALVATION FROM HER SINS

1) [Compare Lk 1:46-49]:

(v. 46) '''And Mary said: "My soul glorifies the Lord

(v. 47) and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,

(v. 48) for he has been mindful of the humble state of his servant. From now on all generations will call me blessed,

(v. 49) for the Mighty One has done great things for me-- holy is His name.'''

The context in this passage relative to the word Savior demands salvation from the consequences of ones sins. Jesus' very name meant that He would save His people from their sins, not from physical harm, nor from sinning but from the consequences of sin:

3) [Compare Mt 1:21]:

"She will give birth to a Son, and you are to give Him the name Jesus, because He will save His people from their sins."

Furthermore, there is no Scripture passage that infers or stipulates that Mary or anyone was absolutely saved from committing any sins, and therefore lived a sinless life.

Finally, there is no Scripture that infers or stipulates that Mary was saved from harm or early physical death as a result of our Lord's efforts. So we are left with Mary being saved unto eternal life by what our Lord did on the cross for her and all of humanity who trust in Him to do this for them.

Incidentally, it was Joseph, not our Lord, who kept Mary's pregnancy quiet and thus saved her from public disgrace and physical harm before our Lord was born:

4) [Mt 1:19-20]:

(v. 19) '''Because Joseph her husband was a righteous man and did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.

(v. 20) But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit." '''

C) ALL MANKIND WITH THE EXCEPTION OF OUR LORD HAVE SINNED AND FALL SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD, INCLUDING MARY WHO WAS BORN OF A HUMAN FATHER DESCENDANT OF ADAM

1) [Compare Ro 3:23]:

"For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God"

Notice that all men have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and this would include Mary who was born of a human father descendant of Adam.

2) [Compare 1 Cor 15:22]:

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

[Note that since Mary had a human father she is in Adam and needs a Savior, Jesus Christ]

3) [Compare Heb 4:15]:

"For we do not have a High Priest Who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have One Who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin."

Notice that throughout Scripture the only exception to all men being sinners was Jesus Christ.

IV) BEING TRANSLATED DOES NOT SIGNIFY SINLESSNESS

A) INTRODUCTION

Although Enoch and Elijah were taken up before they physically died, none were declared sinless. The same goes for believers of the church age who are physically alive at the time of the Rapture.

Therefore, even if Scripture indicated that Mary was translated, which it does not, this is no indication that she was sinless.

1) ENOCH

a) [Gen 5:21-24]:

(v. 21) "When Enoch had lived 65 years, he became the father of Methuselah.

(v. 22) And after he became the father of Methuselah, Enoch walked with God 300 years and had other sons and daughters.

(v. 23) Altogether, Enoch lived 365 years.

(v. 24) Enoch walked with God; then he was no more, because God took him away."

b) [Compare Heb 11:5-6]:

(v. 5) "By faith Enoch was taken from this life, so that he did not experience death; he could not be found, because God had taken him away. For before he was taken, he was commended as one who pleased God.

(v. 6) And without faith it is impossible to please God, because anyone who comes to him must believe that he exists and that he rewards those who earnestly seek him."

[Note there is no indication in Scripture that Enoch was without sin, just that he walked with God 300 years as a man of faith. And note that Mt 19:16-17 stipulates that there is no one good but God alone]

2) ELIJAH

a) [Compare 2 Kg 2:11]:

"As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind."

[Note that Scripture indicates that Elijah did not lead a sinless life, especially evident in 1 Kg chapter 19 when he became afraid of Jezebel and fled in fear and despair, quitting his ministry for a timeand not trusting God to preserve his life]

3) CHURCH AGE BELIEVERS WHO ARE PHYSICALLY ALIVE WILL BE RAPTURED ALIVE

a) [1 Thes 4:16-17]:

(v. 16) For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first.

(v. 17) After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever."

Finally, believers of the church age who are all sinners and are physically alive, (as well as those who have died), will be translated into heaven.

4) CONCLUSION

Therefore, even if Scripture indicates that Mary was translated into heaven, and it does not, this is no indication that she was sinless.

V) JESUS HAD OPPORTUNITIES TO DECLARE HIS MOTHER'S SINLESSNESS BUT HE DID NOT

A) [Compare Lk 11:27-28]:

(v. 27) '''As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, "Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you."

(v. 28) He replied, "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it." '''

Throughout the Bible Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man, not as the Son of Mary.

VI) GOD'S HOLINESS WOULD BE VIOLATED IF MARY WERE BORN SINLESS AND WERE PRESERVED FROM COMMITTING SIN

A) Since the whole human race born of a human father desendant of Adam is born in sin, which includes Mary:

1) [Compare Ro 5:12a]:

"Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned--"

Notice that sin came through the man, Adam, not the woman.

The words "all sinned" in the Greek are in the aorist tense = completed action. They point back in time to the specific sin of Adam in the garden of Eden. So in the Greek it refers to the particular sin of Adam in the Garden and it refers to the death which is in view which God refers to when the Hebrew says "If you eat of that tree dying you shall die" meaning that immediately Adam will die spiritually and then in time he would die physically.

So by divine reckoning, Adam represented all his descendants in his actions in Eden. And so all of mankind born of a human father is born, by God's viewpoint, in Adam - a representative in Eden. And the consequences of death upon him is imputed to us all. So all who are born into the human race via a human father is automatically doomed to the Lake of Fire because all are guilty of Adam's sin. This is what is meant by the term "Original Sin". So all have sinned by imputation from the guilt of Adam.

B) And since God cannot forgive sin until payment is made for those sins:

1) [Heb 9:22b]:

"Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness."

C) And since God's Absolute Justice and Holiness would be violated had He forgiven the sins of anyone before the cross:

1) [Compare Ro 3:25-26 NAS]:

(v. 25) "[Jesus Christ] Whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. He did this to demonstrate His justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand [of believers before the cross] unpunished --

(v. 26) He did it to demonstrate His justice at the present time, so as to be just and the One Who justifies those who have faith in Jesus."

[So God's justice was satisfied by the atonement with respect to the sins of the past before the time of the cross which were promised to be forgiven. His holiness - His perfect righteousness - was thus not impugned for covering the sins of believers in the past until the atonement was completed by Jesus Christ on the cross.]

D) Then Mary could not have been forgiven of her sin prior to the cross, nor preserved from sin in order to lead a sinless life, for she too was born of a human father desendant of Adam.

VII) ON THE OTHER HAND, IF GOD COULD HAVE PRESERVED MARY FROM SIN WITHOUT IMPUGINING HIS HOLINESS THEN WHY WAS THERE A NEED FOR A SAVIOR FOR THE REST OF HUMANITY AT ALL?

But in fact all humanity including Mary needs a Savior, for God cannot forgive their sins without the shedding of blood:

A) [Compare 1 Cor 15:22]:

"For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive."

[Note that since Mary had a human father she is in Adam and needs a Savior, Jesus Christ]

B) [Heb 9:22b]:

"Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness."